Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank06/09/2003 Bank: (Aviation Mechanic Airframe) Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank The FAA computer-assisted testing system is supported by a series of supplement publications. These publications, available through several aviation publishers, include the graphics, legends, and maps that are needed to successfully respond to certain test items. Please download the file Supplements.pdf at the Internet address of http://afs600.faa.gov/ for a complete list of the associated supplement books. 1.A02 AMA Which statement about wood decay is correct? A) Decay that occurs before the wood is seasoned does not affect the strength of the finished piece. B) A limited amount of certain kinds of decay is acceptable in aircraft woods since decay affects the binding between the fibers and not the fibers themselves. C) Decay is not acceptable in any form or amount. 2.A03 AMA Compression failures in wood aircraft structures are characterized by buckling of the fibers that appear as streaks on the surface A) at right angles to the growth rings. B) parallel to the grain. C) at right angles to the grain. 3.A03 AMA Glue deterioration in wood aircraft structure is indicated A) when a joint has separated and the glue surface shows only the imprint of the wood with no wood fibers clinging to the glue. B) when a joint has separated and the glue surface shows pieces of wood and/or wood fibers clinging to the glue. C) by any joint separation. 4.A03 AMA When patching a plywood skin, abrupt changes in cross sectional areas which will develop dangerous stress concentration should be avoided by using A) circular or elliptical patches. B) square patches. C) doublers with any desired shaped patches. 5.A03 AMA Laminated wood is sometimes used in the construction of highly stressed aircraft components. This wood can be identified by its A) parallel grain construction. B) similarity to standard plywood construction. C) perpendicular grain construction. 6.A02 AMA The cantilever wing uses A) external struts or wire bracing. B) no external bracing. C) the skin to carry most of the load to the wing butt. 7.A02 AMA Pin knot clusters are permitted in wood aircraft structure provided A) they produce a small effect on grain direction. B) they have no mineral streaks. C) no pitch pockets are within 12 inches. 8.A02 AMA Which of the following conditions will determine acceptance of wood with mineral streaks? A) Careful inspection fails to reveal any decay. B) They produce only a small effect on grain direction. C) Local irregularities do not exceed limitations specified for spiral and diagonal grain. 9.A02 AMA A faint line running across the grain of a wood spar generally indicates A) compression failure. B) shear failure. C) decay. 10.A01 AMA In cases of elongated boltholes in a wood spar or cracks in the vicinity of boltholes, A) it is permissible to ream the hole, plug with hardwood, and redrill. B) the spar may be reinforced by using hardwood reinforcing plates. C) a new section of spar should be spliced in or the spar replaced entirely. 11.A01 AMA Where is information found concerning acceptable species substitutions for wood materials used in aircraft repair? A) Aircraft Specifications or Type Certificate Data Sheets. B) Technical Standard Orders. C) AC 43.13-1B. 12.A01 AMA The strength of a well designed and properly prepared wood splice joint is provided by the A) bearing surface of the wood fibers. B) glue. C) reinforcement plates. 13.A02 AMA The I beam wooden spar is routed to A) increase strength. B) obtain uniform strength. C) reduce weight. 14.B02 AMA When testing the strength of Grade A cotton fabric covering an aircraft that requires only intermediate grade, the minimum acceptable strength the fabric must have is A) 70 percent of its original strength. B) 70 percent of the original strength for intermediate fabric. C) 56 pounds per inch warp and fill. 15.B02 AMA (1) Machine sewn seams in aircraft covering fabrics may be of the folded fell or French fell types. (2) A plain lapped seam is never permissible. Regarding the above statements, A) both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. B) only No. 1 is true. C) only No. 2 is true. 16.B02 AMA Fabric rejuvenator A) restores the condition of dope coatings. B) restores fabric strength and tautness to at least the minimum acceptable level. C) penetrates the fabric and restores fungicidal resistance. 17.B02 AMA The strength classification of fabrics used in aircraft covering is based on A) bearing strength. B) shear strength. C) tensile strength. 18.B02 AMA The best method of repair for a fabric covered surface which has an L shaped tear, each leg of which is approximately 14 inches long, is to A) re-cover the entire bay in which the tear is located. B) sew from the end of each leg to the center of the tear with a baseball stitch and then dope on a patch. C) sew with a baseball stitch from the center of the tear out toward the extremity of each leg and then dope on a patch. 19.B01 AMA Moisture, mildew, chemicals, and acids have no effect on A) glass fabric. B) linen fabric. C) dacron fabric. 20.B01 AMA Finishing tape (surface tape) is used for what purpose? A) To help prevent 'ripple formation' in covering fabric. B) To provide additional anti-tear resistance under reinforcement tape. C) To provide additional wear resistance over the edges of fabric forming structures. 21.B01 AMA How many fabric thicknesses will be found in a French fell seam? A) Five. B) Three. C) Four. 22.B01 AMA The determining factor(s) for the selection of the correct weight of textile fabric to be used in covering any type of aircraft is the A) maximum wing loading. B) speed of the aircraft. C) speed of the aircraft and the maximum wing loading. 23.B01 AMA When and how is finishing tape applied on a fabric covered aircraft? A) Sewed or laced on before dope is applied. B) Doped on immediately prior to the finish coat. C) Doped on after the first or second coat of dope. 24.B02 AMA When dope-proofing the parts of the aircraft structure that come in contact with doped fabric, which of the following provide an acceptable protective coating? 1. Aluminum foil. 2. Resin impregnated cloth tape. 3. Any one-part type metal primer. 4. Cellulose tape. A) 1 and 2. B) 1 and 4. C) 3 and 4. 25.C04 AMA Which defect in aircraft finishes may be caused by adverse humidity, drafts, or sudden changes in temperature? A) Orange peel. B) Blushing. C) Pinholes. 26.C01 AMA If registration numbers are to be applied to an aircraft with a letter height of 12 inches, what is the minimum space required for the registration mark N1683C? Note: 2/3 x height = character width. 1/6 x height = width for 1. 1/4 x 2/3 height = spacing. 1/6 x height = stroke or line width. A) 52 inches. B) 48 inches. C) 57 inches. 27.C01 AMA If masking tape is applied to an aircraft such as for trim spraying, and is left on for several days and/or exposed to heat, it is likely that the tape will A) not seal out the finishing material if the delay or heating occurs before spraying. B) be weakened in its ability to adhere to the surface. C) cure to the finish and be very difficult to remove. 28.C02 AMA What is used to slow the drying time of some finishes and to prevent blush? A) Reducer. B) Retarder. C) Rejuvenator. 29.C02 AMA Which type of coating typically includes phosphoric acid as one of its components at the time of application? A) Wash primer. B) Epoxy primer. C) Zinc chromate primer. 30.C02 AMA Which properly applied finish topcoat is the most durable and chemical resistant? A) Synthetic enamel. B) Acrylic lacquer. C) Polyurethane. 31.C02 AMA Aluminum-pigment in dope is used primarily to A) provide a silver color. B) aid in sealing out moisture from the fabric. C) exclude sunlight from the fabric. 32.C02 AMA A correct use for acetone is to A) thin zinc chromate primer. B) remove grease from fabric. C) thin dope. 33.C03 AMA Which of the following is a hazard associated with sanding on fabric covered surfaces during the finishing process? A) Overheating of the fabric/finish, especially with the use of power tools. B) Static electricity buildup. C) Embedding of particles in the finish. 34.C03 AMA What is likely to occur if unhydrated wash primer is applied to unpainted aluminum and then about 30 to 40 minutes later a finish topcoat, when the humidity is low? A) Corrosion. B) A glossy, blush-free finish. C) A dull finish due to the topcoat 'sinking in' to primer that is still too soft. 35.C03 AMA Fungicidal dopes are used in aircraft finishing as the A) first coat to prevent fabric rotting and are applied thin enough to saturate the fabric. B) first, full-bodied, brushed-on coat to prevent fungus damage. C) final, full-bodied, brushed-on coat to reduce blushing. 36.C03 AMA Before spraying any finishing materials on unpainted clean aluminum, A) wipe the surface with avgas or kerosene. B) remove any conversion coating film. C) avoid touching the surface with bare hands. 37.C04 AMA What is the usual cause of runs and sags in aircraft finishes? A) Too much material applied in one coat. B) Material is being applied too fast. C) Low atmospheric humidity. 38.C04 AMA Which statement is true regarding paint system compatibility? A) Old type zinc chromate primer may not be used directly for touchup of bare metal surfaces. B) Acrylic nitrocellulose lacquers may be used over old nitrocellulose finishes. C) Old wash primer coats may be overcoated directly with epoxy finishes. 39.C03 AMA What is likely to occur if hydrated wash primer is applied to unpainted aluminum and then about 30 to 40 minutes later a finish topcoat, when the humidity is low? A) Corrosion. B) A glossy, blush-free finish. C) A dull finish due to the topcoat 'sinking in' to primer that is still too soft. 40.D03 AMA What reference tool is used to determine how the fiber is to be oriented for a particular ply of fabric? A) Fill clock (or compass). B) Bias clock (or compass). C) Warp clock (or compass). 41.D06 AMA The primary alloying agent of 2024-T36 is indicated by the number A) 2. B) 20. C) 24. 42.D06 AMA Which rivets should be selected to join two sheets of .032-inch aluminum? A) MS20425D-4-3. B) MS20470AD-4-4. C) MS20455DD-5-3. 43.D06 AMA When an MS20470D rivet is installed, its full shear strength is obtained A) only after a period of age hardening. B) by the cold working of the rivet metal in forming a shop head. C) by heat treating just prior to being driven. 44.D06 AMA Which of the following need not be considered when determining minimum rivet spacing? A) Rivet diameter. B) Rivet length. C) Type of material being riveted. 45.D06 AMA What is the purpose of refrigerating 2017 and 2024 aluminum alloy rivets after heat treatment? A) To accelerate age hardening. B) To relieve internal stresses. C) To retard age hardening. 46.D06 AMA Under certain conditions, type A rivets are not used because of their A) low strength characteristics. B) high alloy content. C) tendency toward embrittlement when subjected to vibration. 47.D06 AMA A rivet set used to drive MS20470 rivets should A) have the same radius as the rivet head. B) have a slightly greater radius than the rivet head. C) be nearly flat on the end, with a slight radius on the edge to prevent damage to the sheet being riveted. 48.D05 AMA What is indicated by a black 'smoky' residue streaming back from some of the rivets on an aircraft? A) The rivets were excessively work hardened during installation. B) Exfoliation corrosion is occurring inside the structure. C) Fretting corrosion is occurring between the rivets and the skin. 49.D06 AMA The dimensions of an MS20430AD-4-8 rivet are A) 1/8 inch in diameter and 1/4 inch long. B) 1/8 inch in diameter and 1/2 inch long. C) 4/16 inch in diameter and 8/32 inch long. 50.D05 AMA (Refer to figure 2.) Select the preferred drawing for proper countersinking. A) All are acceptable. B) 2. C) 1. 51.D06 AMA Which part of the 2017-T36 aluminum alloy designation indicates the primary alloying agent used in its manufacture? A) 2. B) 17. C) 20. 52.D06 AMA A sheet metal repair is to be made using two pieces of 0.040-inch aluminum riveted together. All rivet holes are drilled for 3/32-inch rivets. The length of the rivets to be used will be A) 1/8 inch. B) 1/4 inch. C) 5/16 inch. 53.D06 AMA Most rivets used in aircraft construction have A) dimples. B) smooth heads without markings. C) a raised dot. 54.D06 AMA MS20426AD-6-5 indicates a countersunk rivet which has A) a shank length of 5/16 inch (excluding head). B) a shank length of 5/32 inch (excluding head). C) an overall length of 5/16 inch. 55.D06 AMA Which rivet may be used as received without further treatment? A) 2024-T4. B) 2117-T3. C) 2017-T3. 56.D05 AMA Which is correct concerning the use of a file? A) Apply pressure on the forward stroke, only, except when filing very soft metals such as lead or aluminum. B) A smoother finish can be obtained by using a double cut file than by using a single cut file. C) The terms 'double cut' and 'second cut' have the same meaning in reference to files. 57.D06 AMA Heat treated rivets in the D and DD series that are not driven within the prescribed time after heat treatment or removal from refrigeration A) must be reheat treated before use. B) must be discarded. C) may be returned to refrigeration and used later without reheat treatment. 58.D05 AMA A factor which determines the minimum space between rivets is the A) length of the rivets being used. B) diameter of the rivets being used. C) thickness of the material being riveted. 59.D03 AMA A potted compound repair on honeycomb can usually be made on damages less than A) 4 inches in diameter. B) 2 inches in diameter. C) 1 inch in diameter. 60.D05 AMA When repairing a small hole on a metal stressed skin, the major consideration in the design of the patch should be A) the shear strength of the riveted joint. B) to use rivet spacing similar to a seam in the skin. C) that the bond between the patch and the skin is sufficient to prevent dissimilar metal corrosion. 61.D05 AMA Which procedure is correct when using a reamer to finish a drilled hole to the correct size? A) Turn the reamer in the cutting direction when enlarging the hole and in the opposite direction to remove from the hole. B) Turn the reamer only in the cutting direction. C) Apply considerable pressure on the reamer when starting the cut and reduce the pressure when finishing the cut. 62.D05 AMA Repairs or splices involving stringers on the lower surface of stressed skin metal wings are usually A) not permitted. B) permitted only if the damage does not exceed 6 inches in any direction. C) permitted but are normally more critical in reference to strength in tension than similar repairs to the upper surface. 63.D05 AMA When straightening members made of 2024-T4, you should A) straighten cold and reinforce. B) straighten cold and anneal to remove stress. C) apply heat to the inside of the bend. 64.D05 AMA Clad aluminum alloys are used in aircraft because they A) can be heat treated much easier than the other forms of aluminum. B) are less subject to corrosion than uncoated aluminum alloys. C) are stronger than unclad aluminum alloys. 65.D06 AMA The identifying marks on the heads of aluminum alloy rivets indicate the A) degree of dimensional and process control observed during manufacture. B) head shape, shank size, material used, and specifications adhered to during manufacture. C) specific alloy used in the manufacture of the rivets. 66.D05 AMA Aircraft structural units, such as spars, engine supports, etc., which have been built up from sheet metal, are normally A) repairable, using approved methods. B) repairable, except when subjected to compressive loads. C) not repairable, but must be replaced when damaged or deteriorated. 67.D06 AMA A sheet metal repair is to be made using two pieces of 0.0625-inch aluminum riveted together. All rivet holes are drilled for 1/8-inch rivets. The length of the rivets to be used will be A) 5/32 inch. B) 3/16 inch. C) 5/16 inch. 68.D05 AMA What should be the included angle of a twist drill for hard metal? A) 118°. B) 100°. C) 90°. 69.D05 AMA When fabricating parts from Alclad 2024-T3 aluminum sheet stock, A) bends should be made with a small radius to develop maximum strength. B) all bends must be 90° to the grain. C) all scratches, kinks, tool marks, nicks, etc., must be held to a minimum. 70.D05 AMA The monocoque fuselage relies largely on the strength of A) bulkheads and longerons. B) longerons and formers. C) skin or covering. 71.D05 AMA Which part(s) of a semi monocoque fuselage prevent(s) tension and compression from bending the fuselage? A) The fuselage covering. B) Longerons and stringers. C) Bulkheads and skin. 72.D05 AMA Rivet gauge, or transverse pitch is the distance between the A) centers of rivets in adjacent rows. B) centers of adjacent rivets in the same row. C) heads of rivets in the same row. 73.D05 AMA Rivet pitch is the distance between the A) centers of rivets in adjacent rows. B) centers of adjacent rivets in the same row. C) heads of rivets in the same row. 74.D05 AMA Which statement is true regarding a cantilever wing? A) It has nonadjustable lift struts. B) No external bracing is needed. C) It requires only one lift strut on each side. 75.D07 AMA When bending metal, the material on the outside of the curve stretches while the material on the inside of the curve compresses. That part of the material which is not affected by either stress is the A) mold line. B) bend tangent line. C) neutral line. 76.D06 AMA (Refer to figure 3.) Which is the grip length of the flush rivet? A) 1. B) 2. C) 3. 77.D07 AMA If it is necessary to compute a bend allowance problem and bend allowance tables are not available, the neutral axis of the bend can be A) represented by the actual length of the required material for the bend. B) found by adding approximately one half of the stock thickness to the bend radius. C) found by subtracting the stock thickness from the bend radius. 78.D07 AMA Unless otherwise specified, the radius of a bend is the A) inside radius of the metal being formed. B) inside radius plus one half the thickness of the metal being formed. C) radius of the neutral axis plus one half the thickness of the metal being formed. 79.D07 AMA The sharpest bend that can be placed in a piece of metal without critically weakening the part is called the A) bend allowance. B) minimum radius of bend. C) maximum radius of bend. 80.D07 AMA The most important factors needed to make a flat pattern layout are A) radius, thickness, and mold line. B) radius, thickness, and degree of bend. C) the lengths of the legs (flat sections). 81.D07 AMA A piece of sheet metal is bent to a certain radius. The curvature of the bend is referred to as the A) bend allowance. B) neutral line. C) bend radius. 82.D07 AMA When a piece of aluminum alloy is to be bent using a minimum radius for the type and thickness of material, A) the piece should be bent slowly to eliminate cracking. B) the layout should be made so that the bend will be 90° to the grain of the sheet. C) less pressure than usual should be applied with the movable (upper) clamping bar. 83.D07 AMA The purpose of a joggle is to A) allow clearance for a sheet or an extrusion. B) increase obstruction for a sheet or an extrusion. C) decrease the weight of the part and still retain the necessary strength. 84.D07 AMA A piece of flat stock that is to be bent to a closed angle of 15° must be bent through an angle of A) 165°. B) 105°. C) 90°. 85.D07 AMA (Refer to figure 6.) Determine the dimensions of A, B, and C in the flat layout. Setback = .252 Bend allowance = .345 A) A = .748; B = 2.252; C = 2.004. B) A = .748; B = 1.496; C = 1.248. C) A = 1.252; B = 2.504; C = 1.752. 86.D07 AMA (Refer to figure 6.) What is dimension D? Setback = .252 Bend allowance = .345 A) 3.492. B) 4.182. C) 3.841. 87.D07 AMA The sight line on a sheet metal flat layout to be bent in a cornice or box brake is measured and marked A) one-half radius from either bend tangent line. B) one radius from either bend tangent line. C) one radius from the bend tangent line that is placed under the brake. 88.D07 AMA (Refer to figure 7.) What is dimension F? Setback at D = .095 Setback at E = .068 Bend allowance at D = .150 Bend allowance at E = .112 A) 4.836. B) 5.936. C) 5.738. 89.D07 AMA On a sheet metal fitting layout with a single bend, allow for stretching by A) adding the setback to each leg. B) subtracting the setback from one leg. C) subtracting the setback from both legs. 90.D07 AMA The aluminum alloys used in aircraft construction are usually hardened by which method? A) Cold working. B) Aging. C) Heat treatment. 91.D07 AMA You can distinguish between aluminum and aluminum alloy by A) filing the metal. B) testing with an acetic acid solution. C) testing with a 10 percent solution of caustic soda. 92.D06 AMA Which rivet is used for riveting nickel steel alloys? A) 2024 aluminum. B) Mild steel. C) Monel. 93.D06 AMA Mild steel rivets are used for riveting A) nickel steel parts. B) magnesium parts. C) steel parts. 94.D06 AMA A DD rivet is heat treated before use to A) harden and increase strength. B) relieve internal stresses. C) soften to facilitate riveting. 95.D06 AMA When riveting dissimilar metals together, what precautions must be taken to prevent an electrolytic action? A) Treat the surfaces to be riveted together with a process called anodic treatment. B) Place a protective separator between areas of potential electrical difference. C) Avoid the use of dissimilar metals by redesigning the unit according to the recommendations outlined in AC 43.13-1A. 96.D06 AMA The length of a rivet to be used to join a sheet of .032-inch and .064-inch aluminum alloy should be equal to A) two times the rivet diameter plus .064 inch. B) one and one half times the rivet diameter plus .096 inch. C) three times the rivet diameter plus .096 inch. 97.D06 AMA What is generally the best procedure to use when removing a solid shank rivet? A) Drill through the manufactured head and shank with a shank size drill and remove the rivet with a punch. B) Drill to the base of the manufactured rivet head with a drill one size smaller than the rivet shank and remove the rivet with a punch. C) Drill through the manufactured head and shank with a drill one size smaller than the rivet and remove the rivet with a punch. 98.D06 AMA Joggles in removed rivet shanks would indicate partial A) bearing failure. B) torsion failure. C) shear failure. 99.D07 AMA The flat layout or blank length of a piece of metal from which a simple L shaped bracket 3 inches by 1 inch is to be bent depends upon the radius of the desired bend. The bracket which will require the greatest amount of material is one which has a bend radius of A) 1/8 inch. B) 1/2 inch. C) 1/4 inch. 100.D06 AMA Which rivet is used for riveting magnesium alloy structures? A) Mild steel. B) 5056 aluminum. C) Monel. 101.D05 AMA (Refer to figure 1.) Which of the rivets shown will accurately fit the conical depression made by a 100° countersink? A) 1. B) 2. C) 3. 102.D06 AMA The length of rivet to be chosen when making a structural repair that involves the joining of 0.032-inch and 0.064-inch aluminum sheet, drilled with a No. 30 drill, is A) 7/16 inch. B) 5/16 inch. C) 1/4 inch. 103.D07 AMA (Refer to figure 4.) The length of flat A is A) 3.750 inches. B) 3.875 inches. C) 3.937 inches. 104.D07 AMA (Refer to figure 4.) The amount of material required to make the 90° bend is A) 0.3436 inch. B) 0.3717 inch. C) 0.3925 inch. 105.D07 AMA (Refer to figure 5.) What is the length of flat A? A) 3.7 inches. B) 3.8 inches. C) 3.9 inches. 106.D07 AMA (Refer to figure 5.) What is the flat layout dimension? A) 7.0 inches. B) 6.8 inches. C) 6.6 inches. 107.D07 AMA If a streamline cover plate is to be hand formed using a form block, a piece of dead soft aluminum should first be placed over the hollow portion of the mold and securely fastened in place. The bumping operation should be A) distributed evenly over the face of the aluminum at all times rather than being started at the edges or center. B) started by tapping the aluminum lightly around the edges and gradually working down into the center. C) started by tapping the aluminum in the center until it touches the bottom of the mold and then working out in all directions. 108.D06 AMA What type loads cause the most rivet failures? A) Shear. B) Bearing. C) Head. 109.D03 AMA Superficial scars, scratches, surface abrasion, or rain erosion on fiberglass laminates can generally be repaired by applying A) a piece of resin impregnated glass fabric facing. B) one or more coats of suitable resin (room temperature catalyzed) to the surface. C) a sheet of polyethylene over the abraded surface and one or more coats of resin cured with infrared heat lamps. 110.D03 AMA Proper pre-preg composite lay-up curing is generally accomplished by 1. applying external heat. 2. room temperature exposure. 3. adding a catalyst or curing agent to the resin. 4. applying pressure. A) 2 and 3. B) 1 and 4. C) 1, 3, and 4. 111.D02 AMA One method of inspecting a laminated fiberglass structure that has been subjected to damage is to A) strip the damaged area of all paint and shine a strong light through the structure. B) use dye penetrant inspection procedures, exposing the entire damaged area to the penetrant solution. C) use an eddy current probe on both sides of the damaged area. 112.D02 AMA When inspecting a composite panel using the ring test/tapping method, a dull thud may indicate A) less than full strength curing of the matrix. B) separation of the laminates. C) an area of too much matrix between fiber layers. 113.D02 AMA How many of the following are benefits of using microballoons when making repairs to laminated honeycomb panels? 1. Greater concentrations of resin in edges and corners. 2. Improved strength to weight ratio. 3. Less density. 4. Lower stress concentrations. A) Two. B) Three. C) Four. 114.D03 AMA The length of time that a catalyzed resin will remain in a workable state is called the A) pot life. B) shelf life. C) service life. 115.D03 AMA A category of plastic material that is capable of softening or flowing when reheated is described as a A) thermoplastic. B) thermocure. C) thermoset. 116.D02 AMA One of the best ways to assure that a properly prepared batch of matrix resin has been achieved is to A) perform a chemical composition analysis. B) have mixed enough for a test sample. C) test the viscosity of the resin immediately after mixing. 117.D03 AMA Which is an identifying characteristic of acrylic plastics? A) Zinc chloride will have no effect. B) Has a yellowish tint when viewed from the edge. C) Acetone will soften plastic, but will not change its color. 118.D02 AMA When balsa wood is used to replace a damaged honeycomb core, the plug should be cut so that A) the grain is parallel to the skin. B) it is about 1/8-inch undersize to allow sufficient bonding material to be applied. C) the grain is perpendicular to the skin. 119.D03 AMA The classification for fiberglass reinforcement material that has high resistivity and is the most common is A) E. B) S. C) G. 120.D03 AMA Composite fabric material is considered to be the strongest in what direction? A) Fill. B) Warp. C) Bias. 121.D02 AMA When repairing puncture type damage of a metal faced laminated honeycomb panel, the edges of the doubler should be tapered to A) two times the thickness of the metal. B) 100 times the thickness of the metal. C) whatever is desired for a neat, clean appearance. 122.D03 AMA The strength and stiffness of a properly constructed composite buildup depends primarily on A) a 60 percent matrix to 40 percent fiber ratio. B) the orientation of the plies to the load direction. C) the ability of the fibers to transfer stress to the matrix. 123.D03 AMA Which fiber to resin (percent) ratio for advanced composite wet lay-ups is generally considered the best for strength? A) 40:60. B) 50:50. C) 60:40. 124.D05 AMA What is one of the determining factors which permits machine countersinking when flush riveting? A) Thickness of the material and rivet diameter are the same. B) Thickness of the material is less than the thickness of the rivet head. C) Thickness of the material is greater than the thickness of the rivet head. 125.D03 AMA The classification for high tensile strength fiberglass used in aircraft structures is A) E. B) S. C) G. 126.D01 AMA Threaded rivets (Rivnuts) are commonly used to A) join two or more pieces of sheet metal where shear strength is desired. B) attach parts or components with screws to sheet metal. C) join two or more pieces of sheet metal where bearing strength is desired. 127.D01 AMA A main difference between Lockbolt/ Huckbolt tension and shear fasteners (other than their application) is in the A) number of locking collar grooves. B) shape of the head. C) method of installation. 128.D01 AMA Alloy 2117 rivets are heat treated A) by the manufacturer and do not require heat treatment before being driven. B) by the manufacturer but require reheat treatment before being driven. C) to a temperature of 910 to 930 °F and quenched in cold water. 129.D01 AMA The general rule for finding the proper rivet diameter is A) three times the thickness of the materials to be joined. B) two times the rivet length. C) three times the thickness of the thickest sheet. 130.D01 AMA The shop head of a rivet should be A) one and one-half times the diameter of the rivet shank. B) one-half times the diameter of the rivet shank. C) one and one-half times the diameter of the manufactured head of the rivet. 131.D01 AMA One of the main advantages of Hi-Lok type fasteners over earlier generations is that A) they can be removed and reused again. B) the squeezed on collar installation provides a more secure, tighter fit. C) they can be installed with ordinary hand tools. 132.D01 AMA The markings on the head of a Dzus fastener identify the A) body diameter, type of head, and length of the fastener. B) body type, head diameter, and type of material. C) manufacturer and type of material. 133.D02 AMA What precaution, if any, should be taken to prevent corrosion inside a repaired metal honeycomb structure? A) Prime the repair with a corrosion inhibitor and seal from the atmosphere. B) Paint the outside area with several coats of exterior paint. C) None. Honeycomb is usually made from a man made or fibrous material which is not susceptible to corrosion. 134.D01 AMA The Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a stud, grommet, and receptacle. The stud diameter is measured in A) tenths of an inch. B) hundredths of an inch. C) sixteenths of an inch. 135.D03 AMA When repairing large, flat surfaces with polyester resins, warping of the surface is likely to occur. One method of reducing the amount of warpage is to A) add an extra amount of catalyst to the resin. B) use short strips of fiberglass in the bonded repair. C) use less catalyst than normal so the repair will be more flexible. 136.D01 AMA Cherrymax and Olympic-Lok rivets A) utilize a rivet gun, special rivet set, and bucking bar for installation. B) utilize a pulling tool for installation. C) may be installed with ordinary hand tools. 137.D01 AMA Hole filling fasteners (for example, MS20470 rivets) should not be used in composite structures primarily because of the A) possibility of causing delamination. B) increased possibility of fretting corrosion in the fastener. C) difficulty in forming a proper shop head. 138.D01 AMA Metal fasteners used with carbon/graphite composite structures A) may be constructed of any of the metals commonly used in aircraft fasteners. B) must be constructed of material such as titanium or corrosion resistant steel. C) must be constructed of high strength aluminum-lithium alloy. 139.D02 AMA Sandwich panels made of metal honeycomb construction are used on modern aircraft because this type of construction A) is lighter than single sheet skin of the same strength and is more corrosion resistant. B) may be repaired by gluing replacement skin to the inner core material with thermoplastic resin. C) has a high strength to weight ratio. 140.D02 AMA (1) When performing a ring (coin tap) test on composite structures, a change in sound may be due to damage or to transition to a different internal structure. (2) The extent of separation damage in composite structures is most accurately measured by a ring (coin tap) test. Regarding the above statements, A) both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. B) only No. 1 is true. C) only No. 2 is true. 141.D02 AMA Which of these methods may be used to inspect fiberglass/honeycomb structures for entrapped water? 1. Acoustic emission monitoring. 2. X-ray. 3. Backlighting. A) 1 and 2. B) 1 and 3. C) 2 and 3. 142.D01 AMA The Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a stud, grommet, and receptacle. The stud length is measured in A) hundredths of an inch. B) tenths of an inch. C) sixteenths of an inch. 143.D05 AMA What should be the included angle of a twist drill for soft metals? A) 118°. B) 90°. C) 65°. 144.D03 AMA What is the material layer used within the vacuum bag pressure system to absorb excess resin during curing called? A) Bleeder. B) Breather. C) Release. 145.D04 AMA What is the most common method of cementing transparent plastics? A) Heat method. B) Soak method. C) Bevel method. 146.D04 AMA When holes are drilled completely through Plexiglas, a A) standard twist drill should be used. B) specially modified twist drill should be used. C) wood drill should be used. 147.D05 AMA What is the purpose of a gusset or gusset plate used in the construction and repair of aircraft structures? A) To hold structural members in position temporarily until the permanent attachment has been completed. B) To provide access for inspection of structural attachments. C) To join and reinforce intersecting structural members. 148.D05 AMA Select the alternative which best describes the function of the flute section of a twist drill. A) Prevents overheating of the drill point. B) Forms the area where the drill bit attaches to the drill motor. C) Forms the cutting edges of the drill point. 149.D05 AMA How many MS20470 AD-4-6 rivets will be required to attach a 10 x 5 inch plate, using a single row of rivets, minimum edge distance, and 4D spacing? A) 56. B) 54. C) 52. 150.D04 AMA If no scratches are visible after transparent plastic enclosure materials have been cleaned, their surfaces should be A) polished with rubbing compound applied with a damp cloth. B) buffed with a clean, soft, dry cloth. C) covered with a thin coat of wax. 151.D05 AMA Shallow scratches in sheet metal may be repaired by A) burnishing. B) buffing. C) stop drilling. 152.D04 AMA The coefficient of expansion of most plastic enclosure materials is A) greater than both steel and aluminum. B) greater than steel but less than aluminum. C) less than either steel or aluminum. 153.D05 AMA When comparing the machining techniques for stainless steel sheet material to those for aluminum alloy sheet, it is normally considered good practice to drill the stainless steel at a A) higher speed with less pressure applied to the drill. B) lower speed with more pressure applied to the drill. C) lower speed with less pressure applied to the drill. 154.D05 AMA A single lap sheet splice is to be used to repair a section of damaged aluminum skin. If a double row of 1/8-inch rivets is used, the minimum allowable overlap will be A) 1/2 inch. B) 3/4 inch. C) 13/16 inch. 155.D05 AMA Which statement is true regarding the inspection of a stressed skin metal wing assembly known to have been critically loaded? A) If rivets show no visible distortion, further investigation is unnecessary. B) If bearing failure has occurred, the rivet shanks will be joggled. C) If genuine rivet tipping has occurred, groups of consecutive rivet heads will be tipped in the same direction. 156.D05 AMA What is the minimum edge distance for aircraft rivets? A) Two times the diameter of the rivet shank. B) Two times the diameter of the rivet head. C) Three times the diameter of the rivet shank. 157.D05 AMA When drilling stainless steel, the drill used should have an included angle of A) 90° and turn at a low speed. B) 118° and turn at a high speed. C) 140° and turn at a low speed. 158.D05 AMA What is the minimum spacing for a single row of aircraft rivets? A) Two times the diameter of the rivet shank. B) Three times the length of the rivet shank. C) Three times the diameter of the rivet shank. 159.D05 AMA Longitudinal (fore and aft) structural members of a semi monocoque fuselage are called A) spars and ribs. B) longerons and stringers. C) spars and stringers. 160.D03 AMA The part of a replacement honeycomb core that must line up with the adjacent original is the A) cell side. B) ribbon direction. C) cell edge. 161.D03 AMA When making repairs to fiberglass, cleaning of the area to be repaired is essential for a good bond. The final cleaning should be made using A) MEK (methyl ethyl ketone). B) soap, water, and a scrub brush. C) a thixotropic agent. 162.D03 AMA When necessary, what type of cutting fluid is usually acceptable for machining composite laminates? A) Water soluble oil. B) Water displacing oil. C) Water only. 163.D03 AMA Fiberglass laminate damage not exceeding the first layer or ply can be repaired by A) filling with a putty consisting of a compatible resin and clean, short glass fibers. B) sanding the damaged area until aerodynamic smoothness is obtained. C) trimming the rough edges and sealing with paint. 164.D03 AMA Fiberglass damage that extends completely through a laminated sandwich structure A) may be repaired. B) must be filled with resin to eliminate dangerous stress concentrations. C) may be filled with putty which is compatible with resin. 165.D03 AMA Fiberglass laminate damage that extends completely through one facing and into the core A) cannot be repaired. B) requires the replacement of the damaged core and facing. C) can be repaired by using a typical metal facing patch. 166.D03 AMA Repairing advanced composites using materials and techniques traditionally used for fiberglass repairs is likely to result in A) restored strength and flexibility. B) improved wear resistance to the structure. C) an unairworthy repair. 167.D04 AMA Cabin upholstery materials installed in current standard category airplanes must A) be fireproof. B) be at least flame resistant. C) meet the requirements prescribed in Part 43. 168.D03 AMA Which of the following, when added to wet resins, provide strength for the repair of damaged fastener holes in composite panels? 1. Microballoons. 2. Flox. 3. Chopped fibers. A) 2 and 3. B) 1 and 3. C) 1, 2, and 3. 169.D01 AMA A well designed rivet joint will subject the rivets to A) compressive loads. B) shear loads. C) tension loads. 170.D03 AMA Which of the following are generally characteristic of aramid fiber (Kevlar) composites? 1. High tensile strength. 2. Flexibility. 3. Stiffness. 4. Corrosive effect in contact with aluminum. 5. Ability to conduct electricity. A) 1 and 2. B) 2, 3 and 4. C) 1, 3, and 5. 171.D03 AMA Which of the following are generally characteristic of carbon/graphite fiber composites? 1. Flexibility. 2. Stiffness. 3. High compressive strength. 4. Corrosive effect in contact with aluminum. 5. Ability to conduct electricity. A) 1 and 3. B) 2, 3, and 4. C) 1, 3, and 5. 172.D04 AMA If an aircraft's transparent plastic enclosures exhibit fine cracks which may extend in a network over or under the surface or through the plastic, the plastic is said to be A) hazing. B) brinelling. C) crazing. 173.D04 AMA When installing transparent plastic enclosures which are retained by bolts extending through the plastic material and self-locking nuts, the nuts should be A) tightened to a firm fit, plus one full turn. B) tightened to a firm fit, then backed off one full turn. C) tightened to a firm fit. 174.D04 AMA If a new safety belt is to be installed in an aircraft, the belt must conform to the strength requirements in which document? A) STC 1282. B) FAR Part 39. C) TSO C22. 175.D04 AMA Which is considered good practice concerning the installation of acrylic plastics? A) When nuts and bolts are used, the plastic should be installed hot and tightened to a firm fit before the plastic cools. B) When rivets are used, adequate spacer or other satisfactory means to prevent excessive tightening of the frame to the plastic should be provided. C) When rivets or nuts and bolts are used, slotted holes are not recommended. 176.D03 AMA The preferred way to make permanent repairs on composites is by A) bonding on metal or cured composite patches. B) riveting on metal or cured composite patches. C) laminating on new repair plies. 177.D02 AMA Composite inspections conducted by means of acoustic emission monitoring A) pick up the 'noise' of corrosion or other deterioration occurring. B) analyze ultrasonic signals transmitted into the parts being inspected. C) create sonogram pictures of the areas being inspected. 178.E05 AMA Edge notching is generally recommended in butt welding above a certain thickness of aluminum because it A) helps hold the metal in alignment during welding. B) aids in the removal or penetration of oxides on the metal surface. C) aids in getting full penetration of the metal and prevents local distortion. 179.E05 AMA Which statement concerning a welding process is true? A) The inert arc welding process uses an inert gas to protect the weld zone from the atmosphere. B) In the metallic arc welding process, filler material, if needed, is provided by a separate metal rod of the proper material held in the arc. C) In the oxyacetylene welding process, the filler rod used for steel is covered with a thin coating of flux. 180.E05 AMA Where should the flux be applied when oxyacetylene welding aluminum? A) Painted only on the surface to be welded. B) Painted on the surface to be welded and applied to the welding rod. C) Applied only to the welding rod. 181.E05 AMA What purpose does flux serve in welding aluminum? A) Removes dirt, grease, and oil. B) Minimizes or prevents oxidation. C) Ensures proper distribution of the filler rod. 182.E05 AMA Why are aluminum plates 1/4 inch or more thick usually preheated before welding? A) Reduces internal stresses and assures more complete penetration. B) Reduces welding time. C) Prevents corrosion and ensures proper distribution of flux. 183.E05 AMA How should a welding torch flame be adjusted to weld stainless steel? A) Slightly carburizing. B) Slightly oxidizing. C) Neutral. 184.E05 AMA Oxides form very rapidly when alloys or metals are hot. It is important, therefore, when welding aluminum to use a A) solvent. B) filler. C) flux. 185.E05 AMA In gas welding, the amount of heat applied to the material being welded is controlled by the A) amount of gas pressure used. B) size of the tip opening. C) distance the tip is held from the work. 186.E05 AMA Oxygen and acetylene cylinders are made of A) seamless aluminum. B) steel. C) bronze. 187.E05 AMA The shielding gases generally used in the Gas Tungsten Arc (GTA) welding of aluminum consist of A) a mixture of nitrogen and carbon dioxide. B) nitrogen or hydrogen, or a mixture of nitrogen and hydrogen. C) helium or argon, or a mixture of helium and argon. 188.E05 AMA Annealing of aluminum A) increases the tensile strength. B) makes the material brittle. C) removes stresses caused by forming. 189.E04 AMA Acetylene at a line pressure above 15 PSI A) is dangerously unstable. B) should be used when a reducing flame is necessary. C) is usually necessary when welding metal over 3/8-inch thick. 190.E05 AMA If too much acetylene is used in the welding of stainless steel, A) a porous weld will result. B) the metal will absorb carbon and lose its resistance to corrosion. C) oxide will be formed on the base metal close to the weld. 191.E01 AMA In Gas Tungsten Arc (GTA) welding, a stream of inert gas is used to A) prevent the formation of oxides in the puddle. B) concentrate the heat of the arc and prevent its dissipation. C) lower the temperature required to properly fuse the metal. 192.E04 AMA Cylinders used to transport and store acetylene A) are pressure tested to 3,000 PSI. B) are green in color. C) contain acetone. 193.E05 AMA When inspecting a butt welded joint by visual means, A) the penetration should be 25 to 50 percent of the thickness of the base metal. B) the penetration should be 100 percent of the thickness of the base metal. C) look for evidence of excessive heat in the form of a very high bead. 194.E02 AMA Why is it necessary to use flux in all silver soldering operations? A) To chemically clean the base metal of oxide film. B) To prevent overheating of the base metal. C) To increase heat conductivity. 195.E04 AMA A welding torch backfire may be caused by A) a loose tip. B) using too much acetylene. C) a tip temperature that is too cool. 196.E01 AMA Which statement best describes magnesium welding? A) Magnesium can be welded to other metals. B) Filler rod should be nickel steel. C) Filler rod should be the same composition as base metal. 197.E02 AMA The oxyacetylene flame for silver soldering should be A) oxidizing. B) neutral. C) carburizing. 198.E03 AMA Engine mount members should preferably be repaired by using a A) larger diameter tube with fishmouth and no rosette welds. B) larger diameter tube with fishmouth and rosette welds. C) smaller diameter tube with fishmouth and rosette welds. 199.E03 AMA What method of repair is recommended for a steel tube longeron dented at a cluster? A) Welded split sleeve. B) Welded outer sleeve. C) Welded patch plate. 200.E04 AMA Welding over brazed or soldered joints is A) not permitted. B) permissible for mild steel. C) permissible for most metals or alloys that are not heat treated. 201.E04 AMA Which statement concerning soldering is correct? A) Joints in electric wire to be soldered should be mechanically secure prior to soldering. B) Changeable shades of blue can be observed on the surface of a copper soldering tip when the proper temperature for soldering has been reached. C) If the soldering temperature is too high, the solder will form in lumps and not produce a positive bond. 202.E04 AMA A resurfaced soldering iron cannot be used effectively until after the working face has been A) fluxed. B) polished. C) tinned. 203.E04 AMA In selecting a torch tip size to use in welding, the size of the tip opening determines the A) amount of heat applied to the work. B) temperature of the flame. C) melting point of the filler metal. 204.E04 AMA Why should a carburizing flame be avoided when welding steel? A) It removes the carbon content. B) It hardens the surface. C) A cold weld will result. 205.E04 AMA The most important consideration(s) when selecting welding rod is/are A) current setting or flame temperature. B) material compatibility. C) ambient conditions. 206.E04 AMA The oxyacetylene flame used for aluminum welding should A) be neutral and soft. B) be slightly oxidizing. C) contain an excess of acetylene and leave the tip at a relatively low speed. 207.E04 AMA A very thin and pointed tip on a soldering copper is undesirable because it will A) transfer too much heat to the work. B) have a tendency to overheat and become brittle. C) cool too rapidly. 208.E04 AMA Filing or grinding a weld bead A) may be performed to achieve a smoother surface. B) reduces the strength of the joint. C) may be necessary to avoid adding excess weight or to achieve uniform material thickness. 209.E04 AMA Which of the following can normally be welded without adversely affecting strength? 1. Aircraft bolts. 2. SAE 4130 chrome/molybdenum tubing. 3. Spring steel struts. 4. Most heat-treated steel/nickel alloy components. A) 2 and 4. B) 1 and 3. C) 2. 210.E01 AMA Which statement is true in regard to welding heat-treated magnesium? A) The welded section does not have the strength of the original metal. B) Flux should not be used because it is very difficult to remove and is likely to cause corrosion. C) Magnesium cannot be repaired by fusion welding because of the high probability of igniting the metal. 211.F02 AMA If the vertical fin of a single engine, propeller driven airplane is rigged properly, it will generally be parallel to A) the longitudinal axis but not the vertical axis. B) the vertical axis but not the longitudinal axis. C) both the longitudinal and vertical axes. 212.F01 AMA What is the purpose of the free wheeling unit in a helicopter drive system? A) It disconnects the rotor whenever the engine stops or slows below the equivalent of rotor RPM. B) It releases the rotor brake for starting. C) It relieves bending stress on the rotor blades during starting. 213.F01 AMA Movement about the longitudinal axis (roll) in a helicopter is effected by movement of the A) collective pitch control. B) cyclic pitch control. C) tail rotor pitch control. 214.F02 AMA Other than the manufacturer maintenance manual what other document could be used to determine the primary flight control surface deflection for an imported aircraft that is reassembled after shipment? A) Aircraft type certificate data sheet. B) Import manual for the aircraft. C) The certificate of airworthiness issued by the importing country. 215.F02 AMA As the angle of attack of an airfoil increases, the center of pressure will A) move toward the trailing edge. B) remain stationary because both lift and drag components increase proportionally to increased angle of attack. C) move toward the leading edge. 216.F02 AMA If a pilot reports that an airplane flies left wing heavy, this condition may be corrected by A) increasing the angle of incidence of the left wing, or decreasing the angle of incidence of the right wing, or both. B) increasing the dihedral angle of the left wing, or decreasing the dihedral angle of the right wing, or both. C) adjusting the dihedral angle of the left wing so that differential pressure between the upper and lower wing surfaces is increased. 217.F02 AMA An airplane which has good longitudinal stability should have a minimum tendency to A) roll. B) pitch. C) yaw. 218.F01 AMA Which statement is correct concerning torque effect on helicopters? A) Torque direction is the same as rotor blade rotation. B) As horsepower decreases, torque increases. C) Torque direction is the opposite of rotor blade rotation. 219.F01 AMA The acute angle formed by the chord line of a wing and the relative wind is known as the A) longitudinal dihedral angle. B) angle of incidence. C) angle of attack. 220.F02 AMA The angle of incidence is that acute angle formed by A) the angular difference between the setting of the main airfoil and the auxiliary airfoil (horizontal stabilizer) in reference to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft. B) a line parallel to the wing chord and a line parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft. C) a line parallel to the wing from root to tip and a line parallel to the lateral axis of the aircraft. 221.F02 AMA An airplane's center of lift is usually located aft of its center of gravity A) so that the airplane will have a tail heavy tendency. B) so that the airplane will have a nose heavy tendency. C) to improve stability about the longitudinal axis. 222.F01 AMA One purpose of the freewheeling unit required between the engine and the helicopter transmission is to A) automatically disengage the rotor from the engine in case of an engine failure. B) disconnect the rotor from the engine to relieve the starter load. C) permit practice of autorotation landings. 223.F01 AMA Main rotor blades that do not cone by the same amount during rotation are said to be out of A) balance. B) collective pitch. C) track. 224.F01 AMA If a single rotor helicopter is in forward horizontal flight, the angle of attack of the advancing blade is A) more than the retreating blade. B) equal to the retreating blade. C) less than the retreating blade. 225.F01 AMA In a hovering helicopter equipped with a tail rotor, directional control is maintained by A) changing the tail rotor RPM. B) tilting the main rotor disk in the desired direction. C) varying the pitch of the tail rotor blades. 226.F01 AMA A helicopter in forward flight, cruise configuration, changes direction by A) varying the pitch of the main rotor blades. B) changing rotor RPM. C) tilting the main rotor disk in the desired direction. 227.F01 AMA In rotorcraft external-loading, the ideal location of the cargo release is where the line of action passes A) aft of the center of gravity at all times. B) forward of the center of gravity at all times. C) through the center of gravity at all times. 228.F01 AMA A decrease in pitch angle of the tail rotor blades on a helicopter A) causes the tail to pivot in the opposite direction of torque rotation around the main rotor axis. B) causes the tail to pivot in the direction of torque rotation around the main rotor axis. C) is required to counteract main rotor torque produced by takeoff RPM. 229.F01 AMA The vertical flight of a helicopter is controlled by A) collective pitch changes. B) cyclic pitch changes. C) increasing or decreasing the RPM of the main rotor. 230.F01 AMA The auxiliary (tail) rotor of a helicopter permits the pilot to compensate for and/or accomplish which of the following? A) Attitude and airspeed. B) Lateral and yaw position. C) Torque and directional control. 231.F03 AMA The correct dihedral angle can be determined by A) measuring the angular setting of each wing at the rear spar with a bubble protractor. B) placing a straightedge and bubble protractor across the spars while the airplane is in flying position. C) using a dihedral board and bubble level along the front spar of each wing. 232.F02 AMA An airplane is controlled directionally about its vertical axis by the A) rudder. B) elevator(s). C) ailerons. 233.F01 AMA The purpose in checking main rotor blade tracking is to determine the A) relative position of the blades during rotation. B) flight path of the blades during rotation. C) extent of an out of balance condition during rotation. 234.F05 AMA If the control stick of an aircraft with properly rigged flight controls is moved forward and to the right, the left aileron will move A) up and the elevator will move down. B) down and the elevator will move up. C) down and the elevator will move down. 235.F05 AMA The cable operated control system of an all metal aircraft, not incorporating a temperature compensating device, has been rigged to the correct tension in a heated hangar. If the aircraft is operated in very cold weather, the cable tension will A) decrease when the aircraft structure and cables become cold. B) increase when the aircraft structure and cables become cold. C) be unaffected if stainless steel cable is installed. 236.F05 AMA Very often, repairs to a control surface require static rebalancing of the control surface. Generally, flight control balance condition may be determined by A) checking for equal distribution of weight throughout the control surface. B) the behavior of the trailing edge when the surface is suspended from its hinge points. C) suspending the control surface from its leading edge in the streamline position and checking weight distribution. 237.F05 AMA Excessive wear on both of the sides of a control cable pulley groove is evidence of A) pulley misalignment. B) cable misalignment. C) excessive cable tension. 238.F05 AMA Fairleads should never deflect the alignment of a cable more than A) 12°. B) 8°. C) 3°. 239.F05 AMA Where does the breakage of control cable wires occur most frequently? A) Breakage usually occurs where cables are swaged to turnbuckle and ball terminals. B) Breakage usually occurs where cables pass over pulleys and through fairleads. C) Breakage sites are unpredictable and usually occur randomly anywhere along the length of a cable. 240.F05 AMA With which system is differential control associated? A) Trim. B) Aileron. C) Elevator. 241.F05 AMA Which statement concerning the 100-hour inspection of an airplane equipped with a push pull tube type control system is true? A) The threaded rod ends should not be adjusted in length for rigging purposes because the rod ends have been properly positioned and staked during manufacture. B) The terminal end threads of the turnbuckles should be visible through the safety hole in the barrel. C) The threaded rod ends should be checked for the amount of thread engagement by means of the inspection hole provided. 242.F05 AMA If control cables are adjusted properly and the control surfaces tend to vibrate, the probable cause is A) worn attachment fittings. B) oil can effects on the control surfaces. C) excessive cable tension. 243.F05 AMA Aircraft flight control trim systems must be designed and installed so that the A) pilot can determine the relative position of the trim tab from the cockpit. B) operating control and the trim tab will always move in the same direction. C) trim system will disengage or become inoperative if the primary flight control system fails. 244.F05 AMA Stability about the axis which runs parallel to the line of flight is referred to as A) longitudinal stability. B) lateral stability. C) directional stability. 245.F05 AMA The purpose of spring tabs or servo tabs is to A) assist the pilot in moving the control surfaces. B) contribute to the static balance of the control surface. C) make in flight trim adjustments possible. 246.F02 AMA The primary purpose of stall strips is to A) provide added lift at slow speeds. B) stall the inboard portion of the wings first. C) provide added lift at high angles of attack. 247.F05 AMA Movement of the cockpit control toward the nosedown position during a ground operational check of the elevator trim tab system will cause the trailing edge of the trim tab to move in which direction? A) Downward regardless of elevator position. B) Upward regardless of elevator position. C) Downward if the elevator is in the UP position and upward if the elevator is in the DOWN position. 248.F04 AMA The purpose of the vertical fin is to provide A) directional stability. B) longitudinal stability. C) lateral stability. 249.F05 AMA If the travel of an airplane's controls is correct but the cables are rigged exceptionally tight, what probable effect will this have when flying the airplane? A) The airplane will tend to fall off on one wing. B) The airplane will be heavy on the controls. C) The pilot will be unable to fly the airplane hands off. 250.F05 AMA During inspection of the flight control system of an airplane equipped with differential-type aileron control, side to side movement of the control stick will cause A) each aileron to have a greater up travel (from the streamlined position) than down travel. B) each aileron to have greater down travel (from the streamlined position) than up travel. C) the left aileron to move through a greater number of degrees (from full up to full down) than the right aileron. 251.F05 AMA A universal propeller protractor used to measure the degrees of aileron travel should be zeroed A) with the aileron in the NEUTRAL position. B) with the aileron in the DOWN position. C) when the aircraft is in a level flight attitude. 252.F05 AMA The universal propeller protractor can be used to measure A) propeller track. B) aspect ratio of a wing. C) degrees of flap travel. 253.F05 AMA (Refer to figure 8.) Identify the cable that is used in primary control systems and in other places where operation over pulleys is frequent. A) 2. B) 1. C) 3. 254.F05 AMA A tension regulator in the flight control cable system of a large all metal aircraft is used primarily to A) increase the cable tension in cold weather. B) provide a means of changing cable tension in flight. C) retain a set tension. 255.F05 AMA (Refer to figure 9.) When the outside air temperature is 80 °F, select the acceptable 3/16 cable tension range. A) 130 pounds minimum, 140 pounds maximum. B) 117 pounds minimum, 143 pounds maximum. C) 120 pounds minimum, 140 pounds maximum. 256.F05 AMA Differential control on an aileron system means that A) the down travel is more than the up travel. B) the up travel is more than the down travel. C) one aileron on one wing travels further up than the aileron on the opposite wing to adjust for wash in and wash out. 257.F06 AMA Why is it generally necessary to jack an aircraft indoors for weighing? A) So aircraft may be placed in a level position. B) So that air currents do not destabilize the scales. C) So weighing scales may be calibrated to 0 pounds. 258.F06 AMA Which should be accomplished before jacking an aircraft? A) Install critical stress panels or plates. B) Determine that the fuel tanks are empty. C) Make sure the aircraft is leveled laterally. 259.F05 AMA How are changes in direction of a control cable accomplished? A) Pulleys. B) Bell cranks. C) Fairleads. 260.F05 AMA If the control stick of an aircraft with properly rigged flight controls is moved rearward and to the left, the right aileron will move A) down and the elevator will move down. B) up and the elevator will move down. C) down and the elevator will move up. 261.F03 AMA The dihedral angle of a wing may be measured by placing a straightedge and level protractor on the A) front spar. B) wing root. C) wing chord. 262.F02 AMA Washing in the left wing of a monoplane, for purposes of rigging corrections after flight test, will have what effect on the lift and drag of that wing? A) Both drag and lift will decrease due to decreased angle of attack. B) Both drag and lift will increase due to increased angle of attack. C) The drag will decrease due to the effect of the lift increase. 263.F02 AMA What type of flap system increases the wing area and changes the wing camber? A) Fowler flaps. B) Slotted flaps. C) Split flaps. 264.F02 AMA If the right wing of a monoplane is improperly rigged to a greater angle of incidence than designated in the manufacturer's specifications, it will cause the A) airplane to be off balance both laterally and directionally. B) airplane to pitch and roll about the lateral axis. C) right wing to have both an increased lift and a decreased drag. 265.F02 AMA The chord of a wing is measured from A) wingtip to wingtip. B) wing root to the wingtip. C) leading edge to trailing edge. 266.F02 AMA When the lift of an airfoil increases, the drag will A) decrease. B) also increase. C) increase while the lift is changing but will return to its original value. 267.F02 AMA What physical factors are involved in the aspect ratio of airplane wings? A) Thickness and chord. B) Span and chord. C) Dihedral and angle of attack. 268.F02 AMA Improper rigging of the elevator trim tab system will affect the balance of the airplane about its A) lateral axis. B) longitudinal axis. C) vertical axis. 269.F02 AMA An airplane that has a tendency to gradually increase a pitching moment that has been set into motion has A) poor longitudinal stability. B) good lateral stability. C) poor lateral stability. 270.F02 AMA The purpose of wing slats is to A) reduce stalling speed. B) decrease drag. C) increase speed on takeoff. 271.F02 AMA The angle of incidence of an airplane A) affects the dihedral of the wings. B) is that angle between the relative wind and the chord of the wing. C) does not change in flight. 272.F02 AMA Buffeting is the intermittent application of forces to a part of an airplane. It is caused by A) incorrect rigging of flaps. B) an unsteady flow from turbulence. C) incorrect rigging of ailerons. 273.F05 AMA Placing a piece of cloth around a stainless steel control cable and running it back and forth over the length of the cable is generally a satisfactory method of A) applying par-al-ketone. B) inspecting for broken wires. C) inspecting for wear or corrosion. 274.F02 AMA Rigging and alignment checks should not be undertaken in the open; however, if this cannot be avoided, the aircraft should be positioned A) obliquely into the wind. B) facing any direction since it makes no difference if the wind is steady (not gusting). C) with the nose into the wind. 275.F05 AMA What is the smallest size cable that may be used in aircraft primary control systems? A) 1/4 inch. B) 5/16 inch. C) 1/8 inch. 276.F03 AMA Where would you find precise information to perform a symmetry alignment check for a particular aircraft? A) Aircraft Specification or Type Certificate Data Sheet. B) Manufacturer's service bulletins. C) Aircraft service or maintenance manual. 277.F03 AMA Where is the buttock line or buttline of an aircraft? A) A height measurement left or right of, and perpendicular to, the horizontal centerline. B) A width measurement left of, and perpendicular to, the vertical centerline. C) A width measurement left or right of, and parallel to, the vertical centerline. 278.F03 AMA Where is fuselage station No. 137 located? A) 137 centimeters aft of the nose or fixed reference line. B) 137 inches aft of the zero or fixed reference line. C) Aft of the engine. 279.F03 AMA Proper wing twist in a sheet metal constructed wing can usually be checked by utilizing a A) plum bob, string, and straightedge. B) bubble level and special fixtures described by the manufacturer. C) straightedge, tape measure, and carpenter's square. 280.F04 AMA The vast majority of aircraft control cables are terminated with swaged terminals, that must be A) corrosion treated to show compliance with the manufacturers requirements after the swaging operation. B) pull tested to show compliance with the manufactures requirements after the swaging operation. C) checked with a go-no-go gauge before and after, to show compliance with the manufacturers requirements after the swaging operation. 281.F04 AMA What nondestructive checking method is normally used to ensure that the correct amount of swaging has taken place when installing swaged-type terminals on aircraft control cable? A) Measure the finished length of the terminal barrel and compare with the beginning length. B) Use a terminal gauge to check the diameter of the swaged portion of the terminal. C) Check the surface of the swaged portion of the terminal for small cracks which indicate incomplete swaging. 282.F04 AMA When inspecting a control cable turnbuckle for proper installation, determine that A) no more than four threads are exposed on either side of the turnbuckle barrel. B) the terminal end threads are visible through the safety hole in the barrel. C) the safety wire ends are wrapped a minimum of four turns around the terminal end shanks. 283.F04 AMA If all instructions issued by the swaging tool manufacturer are followed when swaging a cable terminal, the resultant swaged terminal strength should be A) the full rated strength of the cable. B) 80 percent of the full rated strength of the cable. C) 70 percent of the full rated strength of the cable. 284.F04 AMA Which is an acceptable safety device for a castle nut when installed on secondary structures? A) Star washer. B) Lockwasher. C) Cotter pin. 285.F04 AMA When used in close proximity to magnetic compasses, cotter pins are made of what material? A) Corrosion resisting steel. B) Anodized aluminum alloy. C) Cadmium plated low carbon steel. 286.F04 AMA When a fiber or nylon insert-type, self-locking nut can be threaded on a bolt or stud through the insert with only the fingers, it should be A) re-torqued frequently. B) rejected. C) reused only in a different location. 287.F02 AMA The elevators of a conventional airplane are used to provide rotation about the A) longitudinal axis. B) lateral axis. C) vertical axis. 288.F02 AMA Movement of an airplane along its lateral axis (roll) is also movement A) around or about the longitudinal axis controlled by the elevator. B) around or about the lateral axis controlled by the ailerons. C) around or about the longitudinal axis controlled by the ailerons. 289.F02 AMA Wing dihedral, a rigging consideration on most airplanes of conventional design, contributes most to stability of the airplane about its A) longitudinal axis. B) vertical axis. C) lateral axis. 290.F05 AMA After repairing or re covering a rudder, the surface should be rebalanced A) to its spanwise axis. B) in its normal flight position. C) to manufacturer's specifications. 291.F01 AMA Movement about the lateral axis (pitch) in a helicopter is effected by movement of the A) collective pitch control. B) cyclic pitch control. C) tail rotor pitch control. 292.G01 AMA The maximum time a 100-hour inspection may be extended is A) 10 hours. B) 10 hours with a special flight permit. C) 12 hours with a special flight permit. 293.G01 AMA Large airplanes and turbine-powered multiengine airplanes operated under Federal Aviation Regulation Part 91, General Operating and Flight Rules, must be inspected A) in accordance with an inspection program authorized under Federal Aviation Regulation Part 91, Subpart E. B) in accordance with a continuous airworthiness maintenance program (camp program) authorized under Federal Aviation Regulation Part 91, Subpart E. C) in accordance with the progressive inspection requirements of Federal Aviation Regulation Section 91.409(d). 294.G01 AMA Where would you find the operating conditions that make a 100-hour inspection mandatory? A) 14 CFR part 91. B) 14 CFR part 43. C) AC 43.13-2A. 295.G01 AMA Which statement is correct when an aircraft has not been approved for return to service after an annual inspection because of several items requiring minor repair? A) Only the person who performed the annual inspection may approve the aircraft for return to service. B) An appropriately rated mechanic may repair the defects and approve the aircraft for return to service. C) An appropriately rated mechanic may repair the defects, but an IA must approve the aircraft for return to service. 296.G01 AMA An aircraft that is required by Section 91.409, to have a 100-hour inspection may be flown beyond the inspection requirement A) if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be accomplished, but not to exceed 10 flight hours. B) if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be accomplished, but a special flight permit is necessary. C) if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be accomplished, but not to exceed 15 flight hours. 297.G01 AMA Radio equipment installations made in accordance with Supplemental Type Certificate data require approval for return to service A) by a field approval from the FAA. B) by an airframe and powerplant mechanic. C) by the holder of an inspection authorization. 298.G01 AMA Which statement is correct regarding an aircraft that is found to be unairworthy after an annual inspection, due to an item requiring a major repair (assuming approved data is used to accomplish the repair)? A) An appropriately rated mechanic may accomplish the repair, and an IA may approve the aircraft for return to service. B) An appropriately rated mechanic or repair station may repair the defect and approve the aircraft for return to service. C) Only the person who performed the annual inspection may approve the aircraft for return to service, after the major repair. 299.G01 AMA When overhauling electrical equipment, all necessary information should be obtained from A) the aircraft maintenance manual. B) maintenance instructions published by the aircraft and/or equipment manufacturer. C) illustrated parts manual for the aircraft. 300.G01 AMA Which statement about Airworthiness Directives (AD's) is true? A) AD's are information alert bulletins issued by the airframe, powerplant, or component manufacturer. B) Compliance with an AD is not mandatory unless the aircraft affected is for hire. C) Compliance with an applicable AD is mandatory and must be recorded in the maintenance records. 301.G01 AMA Where would you find the recommended statement for recording the approval or disapproval for return to service of an aircraft after a 100-hour or annual inspection? A) 14 CFR Part 65. B) 14 CFR Part 43. C) 14 CFR Part 91. 302.G01 AMA An aircraft that is due an annual inspection may be flown A) if a special permit has been issued for the aircraft. B) for the purpose of performing maintenance. C) for a period of time not to exceed 10 hours. 303.K01 AMA Aircraft tire pressure should be checked A) using only a push on stick-type gauge having 1-pound increments. B) at least once a week or more often. C) as soon as possible after each flight. 304.K01 AMA If the extended longitudinal axis of the main landing gear wheel assemblies intersects aft of the aircraft, the wheels can be termed as having A) toe out. B) toe in. C) negative camber. 305.K01 AMA What should be checked when a shock strut bottoms during a landing? A) Air pressure. B) Packing seals for correct installation. C) Fluid level. 306.K01 AMA What is the purpose of a compensating port or valve in a brake master cylinder of an independent brake system? A) Assists in the master cylinder piston return. B) Prevents fluid from flowing back to the reservoir. C) Permits the fluid to flow toward or away from the reservoir as temperature changes. 307.K01 AMA Overinflated aircraft tires may cause damage to the A) brake linings. B) wheel hub. C) wheel flange. 308.K01 AMA If an aircraft shock strut (air/oil type) bottoms upon initial landing contact, but functions correctly during taxi, the most probable cause is A) low fluid. B) low air charge. C) a restricted metering pin orifice. 309.K01 AMA What is the function of a cam incorporated in a nose gear shock strut? A) Provides an internal shimmy damper. B) Straightens the nosewheel. C) Provides steering of aircraft during ground operation. 310.K01 AMA Extension of an oleo shock strut is measured to determine the A) amount of oil in the strut. B) physical condition of the strut itself. C) proper operating position of the strut. 311.K01 AMA Debooster cylinders are used in brake systems primarily to A) reduce brake pressure and maintain static pressure. B) relieve excessive fluid and ensure a positive release. C) reduce the pressure to the brake and increase the volume of fluid flow. 312.K01 AMA If a shock strut bottoms after it has been properly serviced, the A) strut should be disassembled and the metering pin orifice plate replaced. B) air pressure should be increased. C) strut should be removed, disassembled, and inspected. 313.K01 AMA The purpose of a relief valve in a brake system is to A) reduce pressure for brake application. B) prevent the tire from skidding. C) compensate for thermal expansion. 314.K01 AMA If an airplane equipped with master cylinders and single disk brakes has excessive brake pedal travel, but the brakes are hard and effective, the probable cause is A) the master cylinder one way cup is leaking. B) worn brake linings. C) worn brake disk causing excessive clearance between the notches on the perimeter of the disk and the splines or keys on the wheel. 315.K01 AMA A high speed aircraft tire with a sound cord body and bead may be recapped A) a maximum of three times. B) only by the tire manufacturer. C) an indefinite number of times. 316.K01 AMA The fusible plugs installed in some aircraft wheels will A) indicate tire tread separation. B) prevent overinflation. C) melt at a specified elevated temperature. 317.K01 AMA When servicing an air/oil shock strut with MIL-5606 the strut should be A) collapsed and fluid added at the filler opening. B) fully extended and fluid added at the filler opening. C) partially extended and fluid added at the filler opening. 318.K01 AMA Debooster valves are used in brake systems primarily to A) ensure rapid application and release of the brakes. B) reduce brake pressure and maintain static pressure. C) reduce the pressure and release the brakes rapidly. 319.K01 AMA Instructions concerning the type of fluid and amount of air pressure to be put in a shock strut are found A) on the airplane data plate. B) in the aircraft operations limitations. C) in the aircraft manufacturer's service manual. 320.K01 AMA The repair for an out of tolerance toe in condition of main landing gear wheels determined not to be the result of bent or twisted components consists of A) shimming the axle in the oleo trunnion. B) inserting, removing, or changing the location of washers or spacers at the center pivotal point of the scissor torque links. C) placing shims or spacers behind the bearing of the out of tolerance wheel or wheels. 321.K01 AMA An embossed letter 'H' on an air valve core stem A) is the manufacturer's trademark. B) indicates hydraulic type. C) indicates high-pressure type. 322.K01 AMA The primary purpose for balancing aircraft wheel assemblies is to A) prevent heavy spots and reduce vibration. B) distribute the aircraft weight properly. C) reduce excessive wear and turbulence. 323.K01 AMA The removal, installation, and repair of landing gear tires by the holder of a private pilot certificate on an aircraft owned or operated is considered to be A) a violation of the Federal Aviation Regulations. B) a minor repair. C) preventive maintenance. 324.K01 AMA On all aircraft equipped with retractable landing gear, some means must be provided to A) retract and extend the landing gear if the normal operating mechanism fails. B) extend the landing gear if the normal operating mechanism fails. C) prevent the throttle from being reduced below a safe power setting while the landing gear is retracted. 325.K01 AMA The pressure source for power brakes is A) the main hydraulic system. B) the power brake reservoir. C) a master cylinder. 326.K01 AMA What is the purpose of the torque links attached to the cylinder and piston of a landing gear oleo strut? A) Limit compression stroke. B) Hold the strut in place. C) Maintain correct wheel alignment. 327.K01 AMA The correct inflation pressure for an aircraft tire can be obtained from A) tire manufacturer's specifications. B) the aircraft service manual. C) the information stamped on the aircraft wheel. 328.K01 AMA When an air/oil type of landing gear shock strut is used, the initial shock of landing is cushioned by A) compression of the air charge. B) the fluid being forced through a metered opening. C) compression of the fluid. 329.K01 AMA Internal leakage in a brake master cylinder unit can cause A) slow release of brakes. B) the pedal to slowly creep down while pedal pressure is applied. C) fading brakes. 330.K01 AMA A sleeve, spacer, or bumper ring is incorporated in a landing gear oleo shock strut to A) limit the extension of the torque arm. B) limit the extension stroke. C) reduce the rebound effect. 331.K01 AMA The purpose of a sequence valve in a hydraulic retractable landing gear system is to A) prevent heavy landing gear from falling too rapidly upon extension. B) provide a means of disconnecting the normal source of hydraulic power and connecting the emergency source of power. C) ensure operation of the landing gear and gear doors in the proper order. 332.K01 AMA Power boost brake systems are used on aircraft that have A) high landing speeds. B) low normal hydraulic system pressure. C) more than one brake assembly per axle. 333.K01 AMA A pilot reports that the brake pedals have excessive travel. A probable cause is A) brake rotors have worn. B) lack of fluid in the brake system. C) brake lining has oil or some foreign matter on the disks and linings. 334.K01 AMA The purpose of an orifice check valve is to A) relieve pressure to a sensitive component. B) restrict flow in one direction and allow free flow in the other. C) relieve pressure in one direction and prevent flow in the other direction. 335.K01 AMA (Refer to figure 10.) The trunnion nut on an aircraft landing gear requires a torque of 320 inch-pounds. To reach the nut, a 2-inch straight adapter must be used on an 18-inch torque wrench. How many foot pounds will be indicated on the torque wrench when the required torque of the nut is reached? A) 24. B) 28.8. C) 22. 336.K01 AMA A special bolt in a landing gear attachment requires a torque value of 440 inch-pounds. How many foot pounds are required? A) 36.8. B) 38. C) 36.6. 337.K01 AMA What condition would most likely cause excessive fluctuation of the pressure gauge when the hydraulic pump is operating? A) Accumulator air pressure low. B) Inadequate supply of fluid. C) System relief valve sticking closed. 338.K01 AMA An O ring intended for use in a hydraulic system using MIL-H-5606 (mineral base) fluid will be marked with A) a blue stripe or dot. B) one or more white dots. C) a white and yellow stripe. 339.K01 AMA A hydraulic hose identified as MIL-H-8794 will have a yellow stripe running the length of the hose. This stripe A) is used to ensure that the hose is installed without excessive twisting. B) identifies that the hose is for hydraulic fluid only. C) identifies that the hose is constructed of synthetic rubber and may be suitable for a wide range of applications. 340.K01 AMA A hydraulic system referred to as a 'power pack' system will A) have an engine driven pump for greater pressure. B) have all hydraulic power components located in one unit. C) have a pressurized reservoir. 341.K01 AMA Which statement is true with respect to an aircraft equipped with hydraulically operated multiple disk type brake assemblies? A) There are no minimum or maximum disk clearance checks required due to the use of self compensating cylinder assemblies. B) Do not set parking brake when brakes are hot. C) No parking brake provisions are possible for this type of brake assembly. 342.K01 AMA What device in a hydraulic system with a constant delivery pump allows circulation of the fluid when no demands are on the system? A) Pressure relief valve. B) Shuttle valve. C) Pressure regulator. 343.K01 AMA Nose gear centering cams are used in many retractable landing gear systems. The primary purpose of the centering device is to A) align the nosewheel prior to touchdown. B) engage the nosewheel steering. C) center the nosewheel before it enters the wheel well. 344.K01 AMA Chines are used on some aircraft nose wheel tires to A) help nose gear extension at higher air speeds. B) help reduce the possibility of hydroplaning. C) help deflect water away from the fuselage. 345.K01 AMA How long should you wait after a flight before checking tire pressure? A) At least 2 hours (3 hours in hot weather). B) At least 3 hours (4 hours in hot weather). C) At least 4 hours (5 hours in hot weather). 346.K01 AMA A filter incorporating specially treated cellulose paper is identified as a A) sediment trap. B) cuno filter. C) micronic filter. 347.K01 AMA The rubber seals used in a landing gear shock strut A) are generally designed to be compatible with more than one type of fluid. B) are kept from direct contact with fluid by teflon or nylon backup rings. C) may be used only with a specific type of fluid. 348.K01 AMA Lockout deboosters generally A) allow full debooster piston travel without fluid from the high pressure side entering the low pressure chamber. B) cannot allow full debooster piston travel without fluid from the high pressure side entering the low pressure chamber. C) must be bled separately after brake bleeding has been completed. 349.K01 AMA An electric motor used to raise and lower a landing gear would most likely be a A) shunt field series wound motor. B) split field shunt wound motor. C) split field series wound motor. 350.K01 AMA A landing gear position and warning system will provide a warning in the cockpit when the throttle is A) retarded and gear is not down and locked. B) advanced and gear is down and locked. C) retarded and gear is down and locked. 351.K01 AMA Excessive wear in the center of the tread of an aircraft tire is an indication of A) incorrect camber. B) excessive toe out. C) overinflation. 352.K01 AMA When an empty shock strut is filled with fluid, care should be taken to extend and compress the strut completely at least two times to A) thoroughly lubricate the piston rod. B) force out any excess fluid. C) ensure proper packing ring seating and removal of air bubbles. 353.K01 AMA In shock struts, chevron seals are used to A) absorb bottoming effect. B) prevent oil from escaping. C) serve as a bearing surface. 354.K01 AMA On most aircraft, the oil level of an air and oil shock strut is checked by A) removing the oil filler plug and inserting a gauge. B) measuring the length of the strut extension with a certain air pressure in the strut. C) releasing the air and seeing that the oil is to the level of the filler plug. 355.K01 AMA How can it be determined that all air has been purged from a master cylinder brake system? A) By operating a hydraulic unit and watching the system pressure gauge for smooth, full scale deflection. B) By noting whether the brake is firm or spongy. C) By noting the amount of fluid return to the master cylinder upon brake release. 356.K01 AMA The best safeguards against heat buildup in aircraft tires are A) proper tire inflation, minimum braking, and ground rolls into the wind. B) short ground rolls, slow taxi speeds, minimum braking, and proper tire inflation. C) minimum braking, proper tire inflation, and long ground rolls. 357.K01 AMA In brake service work, the term 'bleeding brakes' is the process of A) withdrawing air only from the system. B) withdrawing fluid from the system for the purpose of removing air that has entered the system. C) replacing small amounts of fluid in reservoir. 358.K01 AMA What is one effect a restricted compensator port of a master cylinder will have on a brake system? A) The brakes will operate normally. B) The reservoir will be filled by reverse flow. C) The restriction will cause slow release of the brakes. 359.K01 AMA Aircraft brakes requiring a large volume of fluid to operate the brakes generally A) use independent master cylinder systems. B) do not use brake system accumulators. C) use power brake control valves. 360.K01 AMA What would be the effect if the piston return spring broke in a brake master cylinder? A) The brakes would become spongy. B) The brake travel would become excessive. C) The brakes would drag. 361.K01 AMA To prevent a very rapid extension of an oleo shock strut after initial compression resulting from landing impact, A) various types of valves or orifices are used which restrict the reverse fluid flow. B) the metering pin gradually reduces the size of the orifice as the shock strut extends. C) the air is forced through a restricted orifice in the reverse direction. 362.K01 AMA A pilot reports the right brake on an aircraft is spongy when the brake pedal is depressed in a normal manner. The probable cause is A) the hydraulic master cylinder piston is sticking. B) air in the brake hydraulic system. C) the hydraulic master cylinder piston return spring is weak. 363.K01 AMA The metering pins in oleo shock struts serve to A) lock the struts in the DOWN position. B) retard the flow of oil as the struts are compressed. C) meter the proper amount of air in the struts. 364.K01 AMA After performing maintenance on an aircraft's landing gear system which may have affected the system's operation, it is usually necessary to A) conduct a flight test. B) re-inspect the area after the first flight. C) make an operational check with the aircraft on jacks. 365.K01 AMA Why do tire and wheel manufacturers often recommend that the tires on split rim wheels be deflated before removing the wheel from the axle? A) To relieve the strain on the wheel retaining nut and axle threads. B) As a safety precaution in case the bolts that hold the wheel halves together have been damaged or weakened. C) To remove the static load imposed upon the wheel bearings by the inflated tire. 366.K01 AMA A stripe or mark applied to a wheel rim and extending onto the sidewall of a tube type tire is a A) slippage mark. B) wheel-to-tire balance mark. C) wheel weight reference mark.. 367.K01 AMA The braking action of a cleveland disk brake is accomplished by compressing a rotating brake disk between two opposite brake linings. How is equal pressure on both sides of the rotating disk assured? A) By allowing the brake rotor to float to automatically equalize as pressure is applied to the rotor. B) By allowing the caliper to float to automatically equalize as pressure is applied to the rotor. C) By allowing the brake linings to automatically equalize as pressure is applied to the rotor. 368.K01 AMA If it is determined that spongy brake action is not caused by air in the brake system, what is the next most likely cause? A) Worn brake lining. B) Internal leakage in the master cylinder. C) Deteriorated flexible hoses. 369.K01 AMA Many brake types can be adapted to operate mechanically or hydraulically. Which type is not adaptable to mechanical operation? A) Single disk spot type. B) Single servo type. C) Expander tube type. 370.K01 AMA Why do most aircraft tire manufacturers recommend that the tubes in newly installed tires be first inflated, fully deflated, and then reinflated to the correct pressure? A) To allow the tube to position itself correctly inside the tire. B) To eliminate all the air between the tube and the inside of the tire. C) To test the entire assembly for leaks. 371.K01 AMA Exposure to and/or storage near which of the following is considered harmful to aircraft tires? 1. Low humidity. 2. Fuel. 3. Oil. 4. Ozone. 5. Helium. 6. Electrical equipment. 7. Hydraulic fluid. 8. Solvents. A) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8. B) 1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 8. C) 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8. 372.L03 AMA Which must be done before adjusting the relief valve of a main hydraulic system incorporating a pressure regulator? A) Eliminate the action of the unloading valve. B) Adjust all other system relief valves which have a lower pressure setting. C) Manually unseat all system check valves to allow unrestricted flow in both directions. 373.L03 AMA Many hydraulic reservoirs contain a small quantity of fluid which is not available to the main system pump. This fluid is retained to A) prime the main system. B) supply fluid to the auxiliary pump. C) supply fluid to the pressure accumulator. 374.L03 AMA The unit which causes one hydraulic operation to follow another in a definite order is called a A) selector valve. B) sequence valve. C) shuttle valve. 375.L03 AMA The purpose of a hydraulic pressure regulator is to A) prevent the system pressure from rising above a predetermined amount due to thermal expansion. B) boost the pressure in portions of the system. C) relieve the pump of its load when no actuating units are being operated. 376.L03 AMA Severe kickback of the emergency hydraulic hand pump handle during the normal intake stroke will indicate which of the following? A) The hand pump inport check valve is sticking open. B) The main system relief valve is set too high. C) The hand pump outport check valve is sticking open. 377.L03 AMA What type of valve in an aircraft hydraulic system permits fluid to flow freely in one direction, but restricts the rate at which fluid is allowed to flow in the other direction? A) Check valve. B) Orifice restrictor. C) Orifice check valve. 378.L03 AMA The main system pressure relief valve in a simple hydraulic system equipped with a power control valve should be adjusted A) with the power control valve held in the CLOSED position. B) while one or more actuating units are in operation. C) with the power control valve in the OPEN position. 379.L03 AMA A hydraulic accumulator is charged with an air preload of 1,000 PSI. When a hydraulic system pressure of 3,000 PSI is developed, the pressure on the air side of the accumulator will be A) 1,000 PSI. B) 3,000 PSI. C) 4,000 PSI. 380.L03 AMA After a hydraulic accumulator has been installed and air chamber charged, the main system hydraulic pressure gauge will not show a hydraulic pressure reading until A) at least one selector valve has been actuated to allow fluid to flow into the fluid side of the accumulator. B) the air pressure has become equal to the fluid pressure. C) the fluid side of the accumulator has been charged. 381.L03 AMA Using a hand pump, pressure of 100 PSI has been built up in a hydraulic system. The hand pump piston is 1 inch in diameter. A 1/2-inch line connects the hand pump to an actuating cylinder 2 inches in diameter. What is the pressure in the line between the hand pump and the actuator? A) 100 PSI. B) 150 PSI. C) 200 PSI. 382.L03 AMA Which seals are used with vegetable base hydraulic fluids? A) Silicone rubber. B) Butyl rubber. C) Natural rubber. 383.L03 AMA The air that is expended and no longer needed when an actuating unit is operated in a pneumatic system is A) exhausted or dumped, usually overboard. B) returned to the compressor. C) charged or pressurized for use during the next operating cycle. 384.L03 AMA Some hydraulic systems incorporate a device which is designed to remain open to allow a normal fluid flow in the line, but closed if the fluid flow increases above an established rate. This device is generally referred to as a A) hydraulic fuse. B) flow regulator. C) metering check valve. 385.L03 AMA When hydraulic system pressure control and relief units fail to function properly, how are most systems protected against overpressure? A) A shear section on the main hydraulic pump drive shaft. B) One or more hydraulic fuses installed in the pressure and return lines. C) A shuttle valve interconnecting the main and emergency systems. 386.L03 AMA How is the air in a hydraulic accumulator prevented from entering the fluid system? A) By forcing the oil/air mixture through a centrifugal separating chamber that prevents the air from leaving the accumulator. B) By physically separating the air chamber from the oil chamber with a flexible or movable separator. C) By including a valve that automatically closes when the fluid level lowers to a preset amount. 387.L03 AMA Most variable displacement hydraulic pumps of current design A) must be driven at a nearly constant speed in order to be practical for use. B) are not practical for use with a closed center hydraulic system. C) contain a built in means of system pressure regulation. 388.L03 AMA The primary function of the flap overload valve is to A) prevent the flaps from being lowered at airspeeds which would impose excessive structural loads. B) cause the flap segments located on opposite sides of the aircraft centerline to extend and retract together so that the aircraft will not become aerodynamically unbalanced to the extent that it becomes uncontrollable. C) boost normal system pressure to the flaps in order to overcome the air loads acting on the relatively large flap area. 389.L03 AMA A unit which transforms hydraulic pressure into linear motion is called A) an actuating cylinder. B) an accumulator. C) a hydraulic pump. 390.L03 AMA If it is necessary to adjust several pressure regulating valves in a hydraulic system, what particular sequence, if any, should be followed? A) Units most distant from the hydraulic pump should be adjusted first. B) Units with the highest pressure settings are adjusted first. C) Units are independent of each other, and therefore, no particular sequence is necessary. 391.L03 AMA If an aircraft's constant pressure hydraulic system cycles more frequently than usual and no fluid leakage can be detected, the most probable cause is A) a too high relief valve setting. B) pump volume output too high. C) low accumulator air preload. 392.L03 AMA Unloading valves are used with many engine driven hydraulic pumps to A) dampen out pressure surges. B) relieve the pump pressure. C) relieve system pressure. 393.L03 AMA What safety device is usually located between the driving unit and hydraulic pump drive shaft? A) Thermal relief valve. B) Pump motor safety switch. C) Pump drive coupling shear section. 394.L03 AMA Which is true regarding the ground check of a flap operating mechanism which has just been installed? A) If the time required to operate the mechanism increases with successive operations, it indicates the air is being worked out of the system. B) If the time required to operate the mechanism decreases with successive operations, it indicates the air is being worked out of the system. C) All hydraulic lines and components should be checked for leaks by applying soapy water to all connections. 395.L03 AMA Excluding lines, which components are required to make up a simple hydraulic system? A) Actuator, pressure reservoir, accumulator, and selector valve. B) Pump, reservoir, selector valve, and actuator. C) Pump, reservoir, relief valve, and shuttle valve. 396.L03 AMA A hydraulic system operational check during ground runup of an aircraft indicates that the wing flaps cannot be lowered using the main hydraulic system, but can be lowered by using the emergency hand pump. Which is the most likely cause? A) The flap selector valve has a severe internal leak. B) The pressure accumulator is not supplying pressure to the system. C) The fluid level in the reservoir is low. 397.L03 AMA In a gear type hydraulic pump, a mechanical safety device incorporated to protect the pump from overload is the A) bypass valve. B) check valve. C) shear pin. 398.L03 AMA After installation of a rebuilt hydraulic hand pump, it is found that the handle cannot be moved in the pumping direction (pressure stroke). The most likely cause is an incorrectly installed A) hand pump inport check valve. B) inport/outport orifice check valve. C) hand pump outport check valve. 399.L03 AMA Pressure is a term used to indicate the force per unit area. Pressure is usually expressed in A) pounds per square inch. B) pounds per inch. C) pounds per cubic inch. 400.L03 AMA If two actuating cylinders which have the same cross sectional area but different lengths of stroke are connected to the same source of hydraulic pressure, they will exert A) different amounts of force but will move at the same rate of speed. B) equal amounts of force but will move at different rates of speed. C) equal amounts of force and will move at the same rate of speed. 401.L03 AMA What happens to the output of a constant displacement hydraulic pump when the hydraulic system pressure regulator diverts the fluid from the system to the reservoir? A) The output pressure remains the same, but the volume reduces. B) The output pressure reduces, but the volume remains the same. C) The output pressure and volume remain the same. 402.L03 AMA Heat exchanger cooling units are required in some aircraft hydraulic systems because of A) fluid flammability. B) high pressures and high rates of fluid flow. C) the high heat generated from braking. 403.L03 AMA Which valve installed in a hydraulic system will have the highest pressure setting? A) Pressure regulator valve. B) Main relief valve. C) Thermal relief valve. 404.L03 AMA How many of these seals are used with petroleum base hydraulic fluids? 1. Synthetic rubber. 2. Natural rubber. 3. Neoprene rubber. A) One. B) Two. C) Three. 405.L03 AMA If the hydraulic system pressure is normal while the engine driven pump is running, but there is no pressure after the engine has been shut off, it indicates A) the system relief valve setting is too high. B) no air pressure in the accumulator. C) the pressure regulator is set too high. 406.L03 AMA Although dents in the heel of a bend are not permissible, they are acceptable in the remainder of a hydraulic tube providing they are less than what percent of the tube diameter? A) 5. B) 10. C) 20. 407.L03 AMA The primary purpose of a hydraulic actuating unit is to transform A) fluid motion into mechanical pressure and back again. B) fluid pressure into useful work. C) energy from one form to another. 408.L03 AMA If hydraulic fluid is released when the air valve core of the accumulator is depressed, it is evidence of A) excessive accumulator air pressure. B) a leaking check valve. C) a ruptured diaphragm or leaking seals. 409.L02 AMA Which is a characteristic of synthetic base hydraulic fluid? A) Low moisture retention. B) High flash point. C) Low flash point. 410.L03 AMA If an engine driven hydraulic pump of the correct capacity fails to maintain normal system pressure during the operation of a cowl flap actuating unit, the probable cause is A) mechanical interference to the movement of the cowl flap. B) a partial restriction in the inport of the selector valve. C) restriction in the pump outlet. 411.L03 AMA Hydraulic system thermal relief valves are set to open at a A) lower pressure than the system relief valve. B) higher pressure than the system relief valve. C) lower pressure than the system pressure regulator. 412.L03 AMA A loud hammering noise in a hydraulic system having an accumulator usually indicates A) air in the fluid. B) too much preload in the accumulator. C) too low or no preload in the accumulator. 413.L03 AMA How would the air pressure charge in the accumulator be determined if the engine is inoperative, but the system still has hydraulic pressure? A) Read it directly from the main system pressure gauge with all actuators inoperative. B) Build up system pressure with the emergency pump and then read the pressure on a gauge attached to the air side of the accumulator. C) Operate a hydraulic unit slowly and note the pressure at which a rapid pressure drop begins as it goes toward zero. 414.L03 AMA To check the air charge in a hydraulic accumulator, A) reduce all hydraulic pressure, then observe the reading on the accumulator air gauge. B) observe the first reading on the hydraulic system gauge while operating a component in the system. C) read it directly from the auxiliary pressure gauge. 415.L03 AMA An emergency supply of fluid is often retained in the main hydraulic system reservoir by the use of a standpipe. The supply line is connected to the A) inlet of the main hydraulic system. B) inlet of the emergency pump. C) inlet of the main system pump. 416.L03 AMA Hydraulic fluid reservoirs are sometimes designed with a standpipe in one of the outlet ports in order to assure emergency supply of fluid. The outlet port with the standpipe in it furnishes fluid to the A) emergency pump when the fluid supply to the normal system has been depleted. B) emergency pump at any time it is required. C) normal system power pump. 417.L03 AMA One of the main advantages of skydrol is it's A) wide operating temperature. B) high operating pressure. C) inability to mix with water. 418.L03 AMA What is the main purpose of a pressurized reservoir in a hydraulic system? A) Prevent tank collapse at altitude. B) Prevent hydraulic pump cavitation. C) Prevent hydraulic fluid from foaming. 419.L03 AMA Chatter in a hydraulic system is caused by A) excessive system pressure. B) insufficient system pressure. C) air in the system. 420.L03 AMA Hydraulic fluid filtering elements constructed of porous paper are normally A) cleaned and reused. B) discarded at regular intervals and replaced with new filtering elements. C) not approved for use in certificated aircraft. 421.L03 AMA Before removing the filler cap of a pressurized hydraulic reservoir, A) relieve the hydraulic system pressure. B) actuate several components in the system. C) relieve the air pressure. 422.L03 AMA Hydraulic system accumulators serve which of the following functions? 1. Dampen pressure surges. 2. Supplement the system pump when demand is beyond the pump's capacity. 3. Store power for limited operation of components if the pump is not operating. 4. Ensure a continuous supply of fluid to the pump. A) 2, 3. B) 1, 2, 3, 4. C) 1, 2, 3. 423.L03 AMA Chattering of the hydraulic pump during operation is an indication A) of low accumulator preload. B) that the main system relief valve is sticking open. C) that air is entering the pump. 424.L03 AMA Quick disconnect couplings in hydraulic systems provide a means of A) easily replacing hydraulic lines in areas where leaks are common. B) quickly connecting and disconnecting hydraulic lines and eliminate the possibility of contaminates entering the system. C) quickly connecting and disconnecting hydraulic lines without loss of fluid or entrance of air into the system. 425.L03 AMA Which seal/material is used with phosphate ester base hydraulic fluids? A) Silicone rubber. B) Butyl rubber. C) Neoprene rubber. 426.L03 AMA A hydraulic pump is a constant-displacement type if it A) produces an unregulated constant pressure. B) produces a continuous positive pressure. C) delivers a uniform rate of fluid flow. 427.L03 AMA The purpose of restrictors in hydraulic systems is to A) control the rate of movement of hydraulically operated mechanisms. B) allow the flow of fluid in one direction only. C) lower the operating pressure of selected components. 428.L03 AMA A crossflow valve which is designed to bypass fluid from one side of an actuating cylinder to the other side, under certain conditions, may be found in some aircraft installed in the A) engine cowl flap system. B) landing gear system. C) flap overload system. 429.L03 AMA A common cause of slow actuation of hydraulic components is A) cold fluid. B) restricted orifices. C) internal leakage in the actuating unit. 430.L03 AMA A pilot reports that when the hydraulic pump is running, the pressure is normal. However, when the pump is stopped, no hydraulic pressure is available. This is an indication of a A) leaking selector valve. B) low accumulator fluid preload. C) leaking accumulator air valve. 431.L03 AMA If fluid is added to a nonpressurized reservoir in a constant pressure hydraulic system while the system is pressurized, A) fluid will spray violently out of the reservoir when the filler neck cap is removed. B) the fluid level will increase when system pressure is reduced. C) air will be drawn into the system, when the filler neck cap is removed, resulting in pump chattering and possible damage. 432.L03 AMA In a hydraulic system that has a reservoir pressurized with turbine engine compressor bleed air, which unit reduces the air pressure between the engine and reservoir? A) Relief valve. B) Air bleed relief valve. C) Air pressure regulator. 433.L03 AMA In a typical high pressure pneumatic system, if the moisture separator does not vent accumulated water when the compressor shuts down, a likely cause is a A) saturated chemical dryer. B) malfunctioning pressure transmitter. C) malfunctioning solenoid dump valve. 434.L03 AMA Teflon hose that has developed a permanent set from being exposed to high pressure or temperature should A) not be straightened or bent further. B) not be reinstalled once removed. C) be immediately replaced. 435.L03 AMA A worn hydraulic pump shaft seal can normally be detected by A) hydraulic fluid flowing from the pump drain line. B) evidence of hydraulic fluid combined in the engine oil. C) the presence of hydraulic fluid around the pump mounting pad. 436.L03 AMA A hydraulic motor converts fluid pressure to A) linear motion. B) rotary motion. C) angular motion. 437.L01 AMA The removal of air from an aircraft hydraulic system is generally accomplished A) through automatic bleed valves on individual components during system operation. B) by operating the various hydraulic components through several cycles. C) by allowing the system to remain inoperative for several hours. 438.L01 AMA What is one advantage of piston type hydraulic motors over electric motors? A) They are considerably quieter in operation. B) There is no fire hazard if the motor is stalled. C) They work satisfactorily over a wider temperature range. 439.L01 AMA Extrusion of an O ring seal is prevented in a high pressure system by the use of a A) backup ring on the side of the O ring next to the pressure. B) U ring on the side of the O ring away from the pressure. C) backup ring on the side of the O ring away from the pressure. 440.L01 AMA The installation of a new metal hydraulic line should be made with A) a straight tube to withstand the shocks and vibration to which it will be subjected. B) a straight tube to permit proper alignment of the fitting and thereby reduce fluid loss through leakage. C) enough bends to allow the tube to expand and contract with temperature changes and to absorb vibration. 441.L01 AMA If a rigid tube is too short for the flare to reach its seat before tightening, pulling it into place by tightening A) is acceptable. B) may distort the flare. C) may distort the cone. 442.L01 AMA Which characteristics apply to aircraft hydraulic systems? 1. Minimum maintenance requirements. 2. Lightweight. 3. About 80 percent operating efficiency (20 percent loss due to fluid friction). 4. Simple to inspect. A) 1, 2, 3, 4. B) 1, 3, 4. C) 1, 2, 4. 443.L01 AMA A flexible sealing element subject to motion is a A) compound. B) packing. C) gasket. 444.L01 AMA The purpose of the pressure regulator in a hydraulic system is to A) maintain system operating pressure within a predetermined range and to unload the pump. B) regulate the amount of fluid flow to the actuating cylinders within the system. C) prevent failure of components or rupture of hydraulic lines under excessive pressure. 445.L01 AMA What is the purpose of using backup rings with O rings in hydraulic systems above 1,500 PSI? A) Prevent internal and external leakage of all moving parts within a hydraulic system. B) Provide a seal between two parts of a unit which move in relation to each other. C) Prevent high pressure from extruding the seal between the moving and stationary part. 446.L01 AMA What type of selector valve is one of the most commonly used in hydraulic systems to provide for simultaneous flow of fluid into and out of a connected actuating unit? A) Four port, closed center valve. B) Three port, four way valve. C) Two port, open center valve. 447.L01 AMA Generally, the first step in removing an accumulator from an aircraft is to A) relieve system pressure. B) discharge the preload. C) drain the reservoir. 448.L01 AMA Pneumatic systems utilize A) return lines. B) relief valves. C) diluter valves. 449.L01 AMA One of the distinguishing characteristics of an open center selector valve used in a hydraulic system is that A) fluid flows through the valve in the OFF position. B) fluid flows in three directions in the ON position. C) a limited amount of fluid flows in one direction and no fluid flows in the opposite direction. 450.L01 AMA An aircraft pneumatic system, which incorporates an engine driven multistage reciprocating compressor, also requires A) an oil separator. B) a surge chamber. C) a moisture separator. 451.L01 AMA Relief valves are used in pneumatic systems A) for one direction flow control. B) to reduce the rate of airflow. C) as damage preventing units. 452.L01 AMA What type of packings should be used in hydraulic components to be installed in a system containing Skydrol? A) AN packings made of natural rubber. B) Packing materials made for ester base fluids. C) AN packings made of neoprene. 453.L03 AMA The hydraulic component that automatically directs fluid from either the normal source or an emergency source to an actuating cylinder is called a A) bypass valve. B) shuttle valve. C) crossflow valve. 454.L01 AMA (1) Relief valves are used in pneumatic systems as damage preventing units. (2) Check valves are used in both hydraulic and pneumatic systems. Regarding the above statements, A) both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. B) neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. C) only No. 1 is true. 455.L02 AMA Three types of hydraulic fluids currently being used in civil aircraft are A) mineral base, vegetable base, and phosphate ester base. B) mineral base, phosphate ester base, and mixed mineral and phosphate ester base. C) mineral base, phosphate ester base, and mixed vegetable and alcohol base. 456.L01 AMA Select the valve used in a hydraulic system that directs pressurized fluid to one end of an actuating cylinder and simultaneously directs return fluid to the reservoir from the other end. A) Sequence. B) Shuttle. C) Selector. 457.L01 AMA Which allows free fluid flow in one direction and no fluid flow in the other direction? A) Check valve. B) Metering piston. C) Shutoff valve. 458.L01 AMA To prevent external and internal leakage in aircraft hydraulic units, the most commonly used type of seal is the A) O ring seal. B) gasket seal. C) chevron s