Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank06/09/2003 Bank: (Aviation Mechanic Powerplant) Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank The FAA computer-assisted testing system is supported by a series of supplement publications. These publications, available through several aviation publishers, include the graphics, legends, and maps that are needed to successfully respond to certain test items. Please download the file Supplements.pdf at the Internet address of http://afs600.faa.gov/ for a complete list of the associated supplement books. 1.A02 AMP On which strokes are both valves on a four-stroke cycle reciprocating aircraft engine open? A) Power and exhaust. B) Intake and compression. C) Exhaust and intake. 2.A01 AMP Which statement is true regarding bearings used in high powered reciprocating aircraft engines? A) The outer race of a single row, self aligning ball bearing will always have a radius equal to the radius of the balls. B) There is less rolling friction when ball bearings are used than when roller bearings are employed. C) Crankshaft bearings are generally of the ball-type due to their ability to withstand extreme loads without overheating. 3.A02 AMP Master rod bearings are generally what type? A) Plain. B) Roller. C) Ball. 4.A01 AMP A nine cylinder engine with a bore of 5.5 inches and a stroke of 6 inches will have a total piston displacement of A) 740 cubic inches. B) 1,425 cubic inches. C) 1,283 cubic inches. 5.A02 AMP Which statement is correct regarding engine crankshafts? A) Moveable counterweights serve to reduce the dynamic vibrations in an aircraft reciprocating engine. B) Moveable counterweights serve to reduce the torsional vibrations in an aircraft reciprocating engine. C) Moveable counterweights are designed to resonate at the natural frequency of the crankshaft. 6.A02 AMP Grinding the valves of a reciprocating engine to a feather edge is likely to result in A) normal operation and long life. B) excessive valve clearance. C) preignition and burned valves. 7.A02 AMP If fuel/air ratio is proper and ignition timing is correct, the combustion process should be completed A) 20 to 30° before top center at the end of the compression stroke. B) when the exhaust valve opens at the end of the power stroke. C) just after top center at the beginning of the power stroke. 8.A02 AMP The primary concern in establishing the firing order for an opposed engine is to A) provide for balance and eliminate vibration to the greatest extent possible. B) keep power impulses on adjacent cylinders as far apart as possible in order to obtain the greatest mechanical efficiency. C) keep the power impulses on adjacent cylinders as close as possible in order to obtain the greatest mechanical efficiency. 9.A01 AMP The five events of a four stroke cycle engine in the order of their occurrence are A) intake, ignition, compression, power, exhaust. B) intake, power, compression, ignition, exhaust. C) intake, compression, ignition, power, exhaust. 10.A01 AMP The operating temperature valve clearance of a radial engine as compared to cold valve clearance is A) greater. B) less. C) the same. 11.A01 AMP Which bearing is least likely to be a roller or ball bearing? A) Rocker arm bearing (overhead valve engine). B) Master rod bearing (radial engine). C) Crankshaft main bearing (radial engine). 12.A01 AMP Which of the following is a characteristic of a thrust bearing used in most radial engines? A) Tapered roller. B) Double row ball. C) Deep groove ball. 13.A01 AMP Which of the following will decrease volumetric efficiency in a reciprocating engine? 1. Full throttle operation. 2. Low cylinder head temperatures. 3. Improper valve timing. 4. Sharp bends in the induction system. 5. High carburetor air temperatures. A) 2, 4, and 5. B) 1, 2, 3, and 4. C) 3, 4, and 5. 14.A01 AMP What is the principal advantage of using propeller reduction gears? A) To enable the propeller RPM to be increased without an accompanying increase in engine RPM. B) To enable the engine RPM to be increased with an accompanying increase in power and allow the propeller to remain at a lower, more efficient RPM. C) To enable the engine RPM to be increased with an accompanying increase in propeller RPM. 15.A01 AMP A condition that can occur in radial engines but is unlikely to occur in horizontally opposed engines is A) zero valve clearance. B) valve overlap. C) hydraulic lock. 16.A02 AMP The valve clearance of an engine using hydraulic lifters, when the lifters are completely flat, or empty, should not exceed A) 0.00 inch. B) a specified amount above zero. C) a specified amount below zero. 17.A02 AMP The actual power delivered to the propeller of an aircraft engine is called A) friction horsepower. B) brake horsepower. C) indicated horsepower. 18.A01 AMP Which condition would be the least likely to be caused by failed or failing engine bearings? A) Excessive oil consumption. B) High oil temperatures. C) Low oil temperatures. 19.A04 AMP How may it be determined that a reciprocating engine with a dry sump is pre oiled sufficiently? A) The engine oil pressure gauge will indicate normal oil pressure. B) Oil will flow from the engine return line or indicator port. C) When the quantity of oil specified by the manufacturer has been pumped into the engine. 20.A03 AMP If the oil pressure of a cold engine is higher than at normal operating temperatures, the A) oil system relief valve should be readjusted. B) engine's lubrication system is probably operating normally. C) oil dilution system should be turned on immediately. 21.A03 AMP A hissing sound from the exhaust stacks when the propeller is being pulled through manually indicates A) a cracked exhaust stack. B) exhaust valve blow by. C) worn piston rings. 22.A03 AMP An engine misses in both the right and left positions of the magneto switch. The quickest method for locating the trouble is to A) check for one or more cold cylinders. B) perform a compression check. C) check each spark plug. 23.A03 AMP Before attempting to start a radial engine that has been shut down for more than 30 minutes, A) turn the propeller by hand three or four revolutions in the opposite direction of normal rotation to check for liquid lock. B) turn the ignition switch on before energizing the starter. C) turn the propeller by hand three to four revolutions in the normal direction of rotation to check for liquid lock. 24.A03 AMP Engine crankshaft runout is usually checked 1. during engine overhaul. 2. during annual inspection. 3. after a 'prop strike' or sudden engine stoppage. 4. during 100-hour inspection. A) 1, 3, and 4. B) 1 and 3. C) 1, 2 and 3. 25.A03 AMP At what speed must a crankshaft turn if each cylinder of a four stroke cycle engine is to be fired 200 times a minute? A) 800 RPM. B) 1,600 RPM. C) 400 RPM. 26.A03 AMP If an engine cylinder is to be removed, at what position in the cylinder should the piston be? A) Bottom dead center. B) Top dead center. C) Halfway between top and bottom dead center. 27.A03 AMP Excessive valve clearances will cause the duration of valve opening to A) increase for both intake and exhaust valves. B) decrease for both intake and exhaust valves. C) decrease for intake valves and increase for exhaust valves. 28.A03 AMP The horsepower developed in the cylinders of a reciprocating engine is known as the A) shaft horsepower. B) indicated horsepower. C) brake horsepower. 29.A03 AMP What special procedure must be followed when adjusting the valves of an engine equipped with a floating cam ring? A) Adjust valves when the engine is hot. B) Adjust all exhaust valves before intake valves. C) Eliminate cam bearing clearance when making valve adjustment. 30.A02 AMP What is the purpose of the safety circlet installed on some valve stems? A) To hold the valve guide in position. B) To hold the valve spring retaining washer in position. C) To prevent valves from falling into the combustion chamber. 31.A04 AMP What is the basic operational sequence for reducing the power output of an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller? A) Reduce the RPM, then the manifold pressure. B) Reduce the manifold pressure, then retard the throttle to obtain the correct RPM. C) Reduce the manifold pressure, then the RPM. 32.A02 AMP Cam ground pistons are installed in some aircraft engines to A) provide a better fit at operating temperatures. B) act as a compensating feature so that a compensated magneto is not required. C) equalize the wear on all pistons. 33.A04 AMP Which statement pertaining to fuel/air ratios is true? A) The mixture ratio which gives the best power is richer than the mixture ratio which gives maximum economy. B) A rich mixture is faster burning than a normal mixture. C) The mixture ratio which gives maximum economy may also be designated as best power mixture. 34.A04 AMP Which of these conditions will cause an engine to have an increased tendency to detonate? 1. High manifold pressure. 2. High intake air temperature. 3. Engine overheated. 4. Late ignition timing. A) 1, 4. B) 1, 2, 3. C) 1, 2, 3, 4. 35.A04 AMP When will small induction system air leaks have the most noticeable effect on engine operation? A) At high RPM. B) At maximum continuous and takeoff power settings. C) At low RPM. 36.A04 AMP To reduce the power output of an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller and operating near maximum BMEP, the A) manifold pressure is reduced with the throttle control before the RPM is reduced with the propeller control. B) manifold pressure is reduced with the propeller control before the RPM is reduced with the throttle control. C) RPM is reduced with the propeller control before the manifold pressure is reduced with the throttle control. 37.A03 AMP What does valve overlap promote? A) Lower intake manifold pressure and temperatures. B) A backflow of gases across the cylinder. C) Better scavenging and cooling characteristics. 38.A03 AMP What is likely to occur if a reciprocating engine is operated at high power settings before it is properly warmed up? A) Oil starvation of bearings and other parts. B) Excessive thinning of the engine oil. C) Accelerated oil breakdown and oxidation. 39.A04 AMP Which of the following would most likely cause a reciprocating engine to backfire through the induction system at low RPM operation? A) Idle mixture too rich. B) Clogged derichment valve. C) Lean mixture. 40.A04 AMP An unsupercharged aircraft reciprocating engine, operated at full throttle from sea level, to 10,000 feet, provided the RPM is unchanged, will A) lose power due to the reduced volume of air drawn into the cylinders. B) produce constant power due to the same volume of air drawn into the cylinders. C) lose power due to the reduced density of the air drawn into the cylinders. 41.A04 AMP Which of the following conditions would most likely lead to detonation? A) Late ignition timing. B) Use of fuel with too high an octane rating. C) Use of fuel with too low an octane rating. 42.A04 AMP During the inspection of an engine control system in which push pull control rods are used, the threaded rod ends should A) not be adjusted in length for rigging purposes because the rod ends have been properly positioned and staked during manufacture. B) be checked for thread engagement of at least two threads but not more than four threads. C) be checked for the amount of thread engagement by means of the inspection holes. 43.A04 AMP Which of the following engine servicing operations generally requires engine pre oiling prior to starting the engine? A) Engine oil and filter change. B) Engine installation. C) Replacement of oil lines. 44.A04 AMP (1) Preignition is caused by improper ignition timing. (2) Detonation occurs when an area of the combustion chamber becomes incandescent and ignites the fuel/air mixture in advance of normal timed ignition. Regarding the above statements, A) only No. 1 is true. B) both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. C) neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. 45.A04 AMP Increased water vapor (higher relative humidity) in the incoming air to a reciprocating engine will normally result in which of the following? A) Decreased engine power at a constant RPM and manifold pressure. B) Increased power output due to increased volumetric efficiency. C) A leaning effect on engines which use non automatic carburetors. 46.A04 AMP Reduced air density at high altitude has a decided effect on carburetion, resulting in a reduction of engine power by A) excessively enriching the fuel/air mixture. B) excessively leaning the fuel/air mixture. C) reducing fuel vaporization. 47.A03 AMP Which fuel/air mixture will result in the highest engine temperature (all other factors remaining constant)? A) A mixture leaner than a rich best power mixture of .085. B) A mixture richer than a full rich mixture of .087. C) A mixture leaner than a manual lean mixture of .060. 48.A04 AMP An increase in manifold pressure with a constant RPM will cause the bearing load in an engine to A) decrease. B) remain relatively constant. C) increase. 49.A04 AMP Excessive valve clearance in a piston engine A) increases valve overlap. B) increases valve opening time. C) decreases valve overlap. 50.A03 AMP Valve clearance changes on opposed type engines using hydraulic lifters are accomplished by A) rocker arm adjustment. B) rocker arm replacement. C) push rod replacement. 51.A03 AMP What is an advantage of using metallic-sodium filled exhaust valves in aircraft reciprocating engines? A) Increased strength and resistance to cracking. B) Reduced valve operating temperatures. C) Greater resistance to deterioration at high valve temperatures. 52.A03 AMP When does valve overlap occur in the operation of an aircraft reciprocating engine? A) At the end of the exhaust stroke and the beginning of the intake stroke. B) At the end of the power stroke and the beginning of the exhaust stroke. C) At the end of the compression stroke and the beginning of the power stroke. 53.A03 AMP By use of a differential pressure compression tester, it is determined that the No. 3 cylinder of a nine cylinder radial engine will not hold pressure after the crankshaft has been rotated 260° from top dead center compression stroke No. 1 cylinder. How can this indication usually be interpreted? A) A normal indication. B) Exhaust valve blow by. C) A damaged exhaust valve or insufficient exhaust valve clearance. 54.A03 AMP What is the best indication of worn valve guides? A) High oil consumption. B) Low compression. C) Low oil pressure. 55.A03 AMP During ground check an engine is found to be rough running, the magneto drop is normal, and the manifold pressure is higher than normal for any given RPM. The trouble may be caused by A) several spark plugs fouled on different cylinders. B) a leak in the intake manifold. C) a dead cylinder. 56.A03 AMP If the ignition switch is moved from BOTH to either LEFT or RIGHT during an engine ground check, normal operation is usually indicated by a A) large drop in RPM. B) momentary interruption of both ignition systems. C) slight drop in RPM. 57.A03 AMP Standard aircraft cylinder oversizes usually range from 0.010 inch to 0.030 inch. Oversize on automobile engine cylinders may range up to 0.100 inch. This is because aircraft engine cylinders A) have more limited cooling capacity. B) have relatively thin walls and may be nitrided. C) operate at high temperatures. 58.A03 AMP Engine operating flexibility is the ability of the engine to A) deliver maximum horsepower at a specific altitude. B) meet exacting requirements of efficiency and low weight per horsepower ratio. C) run smoothly and give the desired performance at all speeds. 59.A04 AMP Direct mechanical push pull carburetor heat control linkages should normally be adjusted so that the stop located on the diverter valve will be contacted A) before the stop at the control lever is reached in both HOT and COLD positions. B) before the stop at the control lever is reached in the HOT position and after the stop at the control lever is reached in the COLD position. C) after the stop at the control lever is reached in both HOT and COLD positions. 60.A02 AMP During overhaul, reciprocating engine exhaust valves are checked for stretch A) with a suitable inside spring caliper. B) with a contour or radius gauge. C) by placing the valve on a surface plate and measuring its length with a vernier height gauge. 61.A02 AMP If the hot clearance is used to set the valves when the engine is cold, what will occur during operation of the engine? A) The valves will open early and close early. B) The valves will open late and close early. C) The valves will open early and close late. 62.A02 AMP The primary purpose in setting proper valve timing and overlap is to A) permit the best possible charge of fuel/air mixture into the cylinders. B) gain more thorough exhaust gas scavenging. C) obtain the best volumetric efficiency and lower cylinder operating temperatures. 63.A02 AMP Full floating piston pins are those which allow motion between the pin and A) the piston. B) both the piston and the large end of the connecting rod. C) both the piston and the small end of the connecting rod. 64.A02 AMP How many of the following are factors in establishing the maximum compression ratio limitations of an aircraft engine? 1. Detonation characteristics of the fuel used. 2. Design limitations of the engine. 3. Degree of supercharging. 4. Spark plug reach. A) Four. B) Two. C) Three. 65.A04 AMP If air is heard coming from the crankcase breather or oil filler during a differential compression check, what is this an indication of? A) Exhaust valve leakage. B) Intake valve leakage. C) Piston ring leakage. 66.A02 AMP Valve overlap is defined as the number of degrees of crankshaft travel A) during which both valves are off their seats. B) between the closing of the intake valve and the opening of the exhaust valve. C) during which both valves are on their seats. 67.A04 AMP One cause of afterfiring in an aircraft engine is A) sticking intake valves. B) an excessively lean mixture. C) an excessively rich mixture. 68.A04 AMP One of the best indicators of reciprocating engine combustion chamber problems is A) excessive engine vibration. B) starting difficulties. C) spark plug condition. 69.A02 AMP When is the fuel/air mixture ignited in a conventional reciprocating engine? A) When the piston has reached top dead center of the intake stroke. B) Shortly before the piston reaches the top of the compression stroke. C) When the piston reaches top dead center on the compression stroke. 70.A02 AMP Why does the smoothness of operation of an engine increase with a greater number of cylinders? A) The power impulses are spaced closer together. B) The power impulses are spaced farther apart. C) The engine has larger counterbalance weights. 71.A02 AMP On which part of the cylinder walls of a normally operating engine will the greatest amount of wear occur? A) Near the center of the cylinder where piston velocity is greatest. B) Near the top of the cylinder. C) Wear is normally evenly distributed. 72.A02 AMP Which statement is correct regarding a four stroke cycle aircraft engine? A) The intake valve closes on the compression stroke. B) The exhaust valve opens on the exhaust stroke. C) The intake valve closes on the intake stroke. 73.A02 AMP Some cylinder barrels are hardened by A) nitriding. B) shot peening. C) tempering. 74.A02 AMP If the intake valve is opened too early in the cycle of operation of a four-stroke cycle engine, it may result in A) improper scavenging of exhaust gases. B) engine kickback. C) backfiring into the induction system. 75.A02 AMP If an engine with a stroke of 6 inches is operated at 2,000 RPM, the piston movement within the cylinder will be A) at maximum velocity around TDC. B) constant during the entire 360° of crankshaft travel. C) at maximum velocity 90° after TDC. 76.A02 AMP What tool is generally used to measure the crankshaft rotation in degrees? A) Dial indicator. B) Timing disk. C) Prop Protractor. 77.A02 AMP An aircraft reciprocating engine using hydraulic valve lifters is observed to have no clearance in its valve-operating mechanism after the minimum inlet oil and cylinder head temperatures for takeoff have been reached. When can this condition be expected? A) During normal operation. B) When the lifters become deflated. C) As a result of carbon and sludge becoming trapped in the lifter and restricting its motion. 78.A02 AMP Some aircraft engine manufacturers equip their product with choked or taper-ground cylinders in order to A) provide a straight cylinder bore at operating temperatures. B) flex the rings slightly during operation and reduce the possibility of the rings sticking in the grooves. C) increase the compression pressure for starting purposes. 79.A02 AMP Using the following information, determine how many degrees the crankshaft will rotate with both the intake and exhaust valves seated. Intake opens 15° BTDC. Exhaust opens 70° BBDC. Intake closes 45° ABDC. Exhaust closes 10° ATDC. A) 290°. B) 245°. C) 25°. 80.A02 AMP Ignition occurs at 28° BTDC on a certain four-stroke cycle engine, and the intake valve opens at 15° BTDC. How many degrees of crankshaft travel after ignition does the intake valve open? (Consider one cylinder only.) A) 707°. B) 373°. C) 347°. 81.A03 AMP Which of the following will be caused by excessive valve clearance of a cylinder on a reciprocating aircraft engine? A) Reduced valve overlap period. B) Intake and exhaust valves will open early and close late. C) A power increase by shortening the exhaust event. 82.A03 AMP If the oil pressure gauge fluctuates over a wide range from zero to normal operating pressure, the most likely cause is A) low oil supply. B) broken or weak pressure relief valve spring. C) air lock in the scavenge pump intake. 83.A04 AMP To what altitude will a turbo charged engine maintain sea level pressure? A) Critical altitude. B) Service ceiling. C) Pressure altitude. 84.A03 AMP If metallic particles are found in the oil filter during an inspection, A) it is an indication of normal engine wear unless the particles are nonferrous. B) the cause should be identified and corrected before the aircraft is released for flight. C) it is an indication of normal engine wear unless the deposit exceeds a specified amount. 85.A03 AMP A characteristic of dyna focal engine mounts as applied to aircraft reciprocating engines is that the A) shock mounts eliminate the torsional flexing of the powerplant. B) engine attaches to the shock mounts at the engine's center of gravity. C) shock mounts point toward the engine's center of gravity. 86.A03 AMP During routine inspection of a reciprocating engine, a deposit of small, bright, metallic particles which do not cling to the magnetic drain plug is discovered in the oil sump and on the surface of the oil filter. This condition A) may be a result of abnormal plain type bearing wear and is cause for further investigation. B) is probably a result of ring and cylinder wall wear and is cause for engine removal and/or overhaul. C) is normal in engines utilizing plain type bearings and aluminum pistons and is not cause for alarm. 87.A03 AMP Excessive valve clearance results in the valves opening A) late and closing early. B) early and closing late. C) late and closing late. 88.A03 AMP As the pressure is applied during a reciprocating engine compression check using a differential pressure tester, what would a movement of the propeller in the direction of engine rotation indicate? A) The piston was on compression stroke. B) The piston was on exhaust stroke. C) The piston was positioned past top dead center. 89.A03 AMP After spark plugs from an opposed engine have been serviced, in what position should they be reinstalled? A) Next in firing order to the one from which they were removed. B) Swapped bottom to top. C) Next in firing order to the one from which they were removed and swapped bottom to top. 90.A03 AMP What is required by 14 CFR Part 43 Appendix D when performing an annual/ 100-hour inspection on a reciprocating engine aircraft? A) Magneto timing check. B) Cylinder compression check. C) Valve clearance check. 91.A02 AMP The purpose of two or more valve springs in aircraft engines is to A) equalize side pressure on the valve stems. B) eliminate valve spring surge. C) equalize valve face loading. 92.A02 AMP During overhaul, the disassembled parts of an engine are usually degreased with some form of mineral spirits solvent rather than water mixed degreasers primarily because A) solvent degreasers are much more effective. B) water mixed degreaser residues may cause engine oil contamination in the overhauled engine. C) water-mixed degreasers cause corrosion. 93.A03 AMP What will be the likely result if the piston ring gaps happen to be aligned when performing a differential pressure compression check on a cylinder? A) Little or no effect. B) The rings will not be seated. C) A worn or defective ring(s) indication. 94.A03 AMP What is the purpose of a power check on a reciprocating engine? A) To check magneto drop. B) To determine satisfactory performance. C) To determine if the fuel/air mixture is adequate. 95.A02 AMP When cleaning aluminum and magnesium engine parts, it is inadvisable to soak them in solutions containing soap because A) some of the soap will become impregnated in the surface of the material and subsequently cause engine oil contamination and foaming. B) the soap can chemically alter the metals causing them to become more susceptible to corrosion. C) the parts can be destroyed by dissimilar metal electrolytic action if they are placed together in the solution for more than a few minutes. 96.A02 AMP The volume of a cylinder equals 70 cubic inches when the piston is at bottom center. When the piston is at the top of the cylinder, the volume equals 10 cubic inches. What is the compression ratio? A) 1:7. B) 7:10. C) 7:1. 97.A02 AMP How is proper end-gap clearance on new piston rings assured during the overhaul of an engine? A) By accurately measuring and matching the outside diameter of the rings with the inside diameter of the cylinders. B) By using rings specified by the engine manufacturer. C) By placing the rings in the cylinder and measuring the end-gap with a feeler gauge. 98.A02 AMP (1) Cast iron piston rings may be used in chrome plated cylinders. (2) Chrome plated rings may be used in plain steel cylinders. Regarding the above statements, A) only No. 1 is true. B) neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. C) both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. 99.A02 AMP If the crankshaft runout readings on the dial indicator are plus .002 inch and minus .003 inch, the runout is A) .005 inch. B) plus .001 inch. C) minus .001 inch. 100.A02 AMP Compression ratio is the ratio between the A) piston travel on the compression stroke and on the intake stroke. B) combustion chamber pressure on the combustion stroke and on the exhaust stroke. C) cylinder volume with piston at bottom dead center and at top dead center. 101.A04 AMP What could cause excessive pressure buildup in the crankcase of a reciprocating engine? A) Plugged crankcase breather. B) Improper warmup operation. C) An excessive quantity of oil. 102.A03 AMP Which of the following would indicate a general weak engine condition when operated with a fixed pitch propeller or test club? A) Lower than normal static RPM, full throttle operation. B) Manifold pressure lower at idle RPM than at static RPM. C) Lower than normal manifold pressure for any given RPM. 103.B02 AMP Three types of turbine blades are A) reaction, converging, and diverging. B) impulse, reaction, and impulse reaction. C) impulse, vector, and impulse-vector. 104.B01 AMP Who establishes the recommended operating time between overhauls (TBO) of a turbine engine used in general aviation? A) The engine manufacturer. B) The operator (utilizing manufacturer data and trend analysis) working in conjunction with the FAA. C) The FAA. 105.B01 AMP The basic gas turbine engine is divided into two main sections: the cold section and the hot section. (1) The cold section includes the engine inlet, compressor, and turbine sections. (2) The hot section includes the combustor, diffuser, and exhaust sections. Regarding the above statements, A) only No. 1 is true. B) only No. 2 is true. C) neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. 106.B01 AMP (1) Welding and straightening of turbine engine rotating airfoils does not require special equipment. (2) Welding and straightening of turbine engine rotating airfoils is commonly recommended by the manufacturer. Regarding the above statements, A) only No. 1 is true. B) only No. 2 is true. C) neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. 107.B02 AMP How does a dual axial flow compressor improve the efficiency of a turbojet engine? A) More turbine wheels can be used. B) Higher compression ratios can be obtained. C) The velocity of the air entering the combustion chamber is increased. 108.B01 AMP Some engine manufacturers of twin spool gas turbine engines identify turbine discharge pressure in their maintenance manuals as A) Pt7. B) Pt2. C) Tt7. 109.B01 AMP Main bearing oil seals used with turbine engines are usually what type(s)? A) Labyrinth and/or carbon rubbing. B) Teflon and synthetic rubber. C) Labyrinth and/or silicone rubber. 110.B01 AMP What is the first engine instrument indication of a successful start of a turbine engine? A) A rise in the engine fuel flow. B) A rise in oil pressure. C) A rise in the exhaust gas temperature. 111.B01 AMP A turbine engine compressor which contains vanes on both sides of the impeller is a A) double entry centrifugal compressor. B) double entry axial flow compressor. C) single entry axial flow compressor. 112.B01 AMP If, during inspection at engine overhaul, ball or roller bearings are found to have magnetism but otherwise have no defects, they A) cannot be used again. B) are in an acceptable service condition. C) must be degaussed before use. 113.B01 AMP What must be done after the fuel control unit has been replaced on an aircraft gas turbine engine? A) perform a full power engine run to check fuel flow B) Recalibrate the fuel nozzles. C) Retrim the engine. 114.B01 AMP What are the two functional elements in a centrifugal compressor? A) Turbine and compressor. B) Bucket and expander. C) Impeller and diffuser. 115.B01 AMP The function of the exhaust cone assembly of a turbine engine is to A) collect the exhaust gases and act as a noise suppressor. B) swirl and collect the exhaust gases into a single exhaust jet. C) straighten and collect the exhaust gases into a solid exhaust jet. 116.B01 AMP What are the two basic elements of the turbine section in a turbine engine? A) Impeller and diffuser. B) Hot and cold. C) Stator and rotor. 117.B01 AMP When starting a turbine engine, a hung start is indicated if the engine A) exhaust gas temperature exceeds specified limits. B) fails to reach idle RPM. C) RPM exceeds specified operating speed. 118.B02 AMP Which statements are true regarding aircraft engine propulsion? 1. An engine driven propeller imparts a relatively small amount of acceleration to a large mass of air. 2. Turbojet and turbofan engines impart a relatively large amount of acceleration to a smaller mass of air. 3. In modern turboprop engines, nearly 50 percent of the exhaust gas energy is extracted by turbines to drive the propeller and compressor with the rest providing exhaust thrust. A) 1, 2, 3. B) 1, 2. C) 1, 3. 119.B01 AMP In the dual axial flow or twin spool compressor system, the first stage turbine drives the A) N1 and N2 compressors. B) N2 compressor. C) N1 compressor. 120.B01 AMP The blending of blades and vanes in a turbine engine A) is usually accomplished only at engine overhaul. B) should be performed parallel to the length of the blade using smooth contours to minimize stress points. C) may sometimes be accomplished with the engine installed, ordinarily using power tools. 121.B01 AMP During inspection, turbine engine components exposed to high temperatures may only be marked with such materials as allowed by the manufacturer. These materials generally include 1. layout dye. 2. commercial felt tip marker. 3. wax or grease pencil. 4. chalk. 5. graphite lead pencil. A) 1, 2, and 4. B) 1, 3, and 4. C) 2, 4, and 5. 122.B01 AMP At what point in an axial flow turbojet engine will the highest gas pressures occur? A) At the turbine entrance. B) Within the burner section. C) At the compressor outlet. 123.B02 AMP When the leading edge of a first stage turbine blade is found to have stress rupture cracks, which of the following should be suspected? A) Faulty cooling shield. B) Overtemperature condition. C) Overspeed condition. 124.B01 AMP The turbine section of a jet engine A) increases air velocity to generate thrust forces. B) utilizes heat energy to expand and accelerate the incoming gas flow. C) drives the compressor section. 125.B02 AMP The diffuser section of a jet engine is located between A) the burner section and the turbine section. B) station No. 7 and station No. 8. C) the compressor section and the burner section. 126.B02 AMP In which type of turbine engine combustion chamber is the case and liner removed and installed as one unit during routine maintenance? A) Can. B) Can-annular. C) Annular. 127.B02 AMP Where do stress rupture cracks usually appear on turbine blades? A) Across the blade root, parallel to the fir tree. B) Along the leading edge, parallel to the edge. C) Across the leading or trailing edge at a right angle to the edge length. 128.B02 AMP What is the purpose of the diffuser section in a turbine engine? A) To increase pressure and reduce velocity. B) To convert pressure to velocity. C) To reduce pressure and increase velocity. 129.B01 AMP The fan rotational speed of a dual axial compressor forward fan engine is the same as the A) low pressure compressor. B) forward turbine wheel. C) high pressure compressor. 130.B01 AMP What is the profile of a turbine engine compressor blade? A) The leading edge of the blade. B) A cutout that reduces blade tip thickness. C) The curvature of the blade root. 131.B01 AMP In a gas turbine engine, combustion occurs at a constant A) volume. B) pressure. C) density. 132.B01 AMP The abbreviation Pt7 used in turbine engine terminology means A) the total inlet pressure. B) pressure and temperature at station No. 7. C) the total pressure at station No. 7. 133.B02 AMP An advantage of the axial flow compressor is its A) low starting power requirements. B) low weight. C) high peak efficiency. 134.B01 AMP What turbine engine section provides for proper mixing of the fuel and air? A) Combustion section. B) Compressor section. C) Diffuser section. 135.B01 AMP Which statement is true regarding jet engines? A) At the lower engine speeds, thrust increases rapidly with small increases in RPM. B) At the higher engine speeds, thrust increases rapidly with small increases in RPM. C) The thrust delivered per pound of air consumed is less at high altitude than at low altitude. 136.B01 AMP Some high volume turboprop and turbojet engines are equipped with two spool or split compressors. When these engines are operated at high altitudes, the A) low pressure rotor will increase in speed as the compressor load decreases in the lower density air. B) throttle must be retarded to prevent overspeeding of the high pressure rotor due to the lower density air. C) low pressure rotor will decrease in speed as the compressor load decreases in the lower density air. 137.B01 AMP Turbine nozzle diaphragms located on the upstream side of each turbine wheel, are used in the gas turbine engine to A) decrease the velocity of the heated gases flowing past this point. B) direct the flow of gases parallel to the vertical line of the turbine blades. C) increase the velocity of the heated gases flowing past this point. 138.B01 AMP Where is the highest gas pressure in a turbojet engine? A) At the outlet of the tailpipe section. B) At the entrance of the turbine section. C) In the entrance of the burner section. 139.B01 AMP An exhaust cone placed aft of the turbine in a jet engine will cause the pressure in the first part of the exhaust duct to A) increase and the velocity to decrease. B) increase and the velocity to increase. C) decrease and the velocity to increase. 140.B02 AMP Turbine blades are generally more susceptible to operating damage than compressor blades because of A) higher centrifugal loading. B) exposure to high temperatures. C) high pressure and high velocity gas flow. 141.B01 AMP What is the function of the stator vane assembly at the discharge end of a typical axial flow compressor? A) To straighten airflow to eliminate turbulence. B) To direct the flow of gases into the combustion chambers. C) To increase air swirling motion into the combustion chambers. 142.B02 AMP What is one purpose of the stator blades in the compressor section of a turbine engine? A) Stabilize the pressure of the airflow. B) Control the direction of the airflow. C) Increase the velocity of the airflow. 143.B01 AMP One function of the nozzle diaphragm in a turbine engine is to? A) Decrease the velocity of exhaust gases. B) Center the fuel spray in the combustion chamber. C) Direct the flow of gases to strike the turbine blades at the desired angle. 144.B02 AMP What is the primary factor which controls the pressure ratio of an axial flow compressor? A) Number of stages in compressor. B) Compressor inlet pressure. C) Compressor inlet temperature. 145.B02 AMP The velocity of supersonic air as it flows through a divergent nozzle A) increases. B) decreases. C) is inversely proportional to the temperature. 146.B03 AMP Which of the following influences the operation of an automatic fuel control unit on a turbojet engine? A) Burner pressure. B) Mixture control position. C) Exhaust gas temperature. 147.B03 AMP What is meant by a shrouded turbine? A) The turbine blades are shaped so that their ends form a band or shroud. B) The turbine wheel is enclosed by a protective shroud to contain the blades in case of failure. C) The turbine wheel has a shroud or duct which provides cooling air to the turbine blades. 148.B02 AMP The stator vanes in an axial flow compressor A) convert velocity energy into pressure energy. B) convert pressure energy into velocity energy. C) direct air into the first stage rotor vanes at the proper angle. 149.B02 AMP Hot spots on the tail cone of a turbine engine are possible indicators of a malfunctioning fuel nozzle or A) a faulty combustion chamber. B) a faulty igniter plug. C) an improperly positioned tail cone. 150.B02 AMP What is the proper starting sequence for a turbojet engine? A) Ignition, starter, fuel. B) Starter, ignition, fuel. C) Starter, fuel, ignition. 151.B02 AMP (1) In a turbine engine axial flow compressor, each consecutive pair of rotor and stator blades constitutes a pressure stage. (2) In a turbine engine axial flow compressor, the number of rows of stages is determined by the amount of air and total pressure rise required. Regarding the above statements, A) only No. 1 is true. B) only No. 2 is true. C) both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. 152.B02 AMP The pressure of supersonic air as it flows through a divergent nozzle A) increases. B) decreases. C) is inversely proportional to the temperature. 153.B02 AMP In a turbine engine with a dual spool compressor, the low speed compressor A) always turns at the same speed as the high speed compressor. B) is connected directly to the high speed compressor. C) seeks its own best operating speed. 154.B03 AMP A cool-off period prior to shutdown of a turbine engine is accomplished in order to A) allow the turbine wheel to cool before the case contracts around it. B) prevent vapor lock in the fuel control and/or fuel lines. C) prevent seizure of the engine bearings. 155.B02 AMP What is used in turbine engines to aid in stabilization of compressor airflow during low thrust engine operation? A) Stator vanes and rotor vanes. B) Variable guide vanes and/or compressor bleed valves. C) Pressurization and dump valves. 156.B02 AMP The air passing through the combustion chamber of a turbine engine is A) used to support combustion and to cool the engine. B) entirely combined with fuel and burned. C) speeded up and heated by the action of the turbines. 157.B03 AMP What term is used to describe a permanent and cumulative deformation of the turbine blades of a turbojet engine? A) Stretch. B) Distortion. C) Creep. 158.B02 AMP The non-rotating axial-flow compressor airfoils in an aircraft gas turbine engine, are called A) pressurization vanes. B) stator vanes. C) bleed vanes. 159.B02 AMP The purpose of a bleed valve, located in the beginning stages of the compressor, in an aircraft gas turbine engine is to A) vent some of the air overboard to prevent a compressor stall. B) Control excessively high RPM to prevent a compressor stall. C) Vent high ram air pressure overboard to prevent a compressor stall. 160.B02 AMP A gas turbine engine comprises which three main sections? A) Compressor, diffuser, and stator. B) Turbine, combustion, and stator. C) Turbine, compressor, and combustion. 161.B03 AMP At what stage in a turbine engine are gas pressures the greatest? A) Compressor inlet. B) Turbine outlet. C) Compressor outlet. 162.B02 AMP What is the major function of the turbine assembly in a turbojet engine? A) Directs the gases in the proper direction to the tailpipe. B) Supplies the power to turn the compressor. C) Increases the temperature of the exhaust gases. 163.B02 AMP What type of turbine blade is most commonly used in aircraft jet engines? A) Reaction. B) Impulse. C) Impulse-reaction. 164.B03 AMP (1) Accumulation of contaminates in the compressor of a turbojet engine reduces aerodynamic efficiency of the blades. (2) Two common methods for removing dirt deposits from turbojet engine compressor blades are a fluid wash and an abrasive grit blast. Regarding the above statements, A) only No. 1 is true. B) only No. 2 is true. C) both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. 165.B02 AMP The pressure of subsonic air as it flows through a convergent nozzle A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains constant. 166.B02 AMP What is the primary advantage of an axial flow compressor over a centrifugal compressor? A) High frontal area. B) Less expensive. C) Greater pressure ratio. 167.B03 AMP Hot spots in the combustion section of a turbojet engine are possible indicators of A) faulty igniter plugs. B) dirty compressor blades. C) malfunctioning fuel nozzles. 168.B03 AMP Which of the following can cause fan blade shingling in a turbofan engine? 1. Engine overspeed. 2. Engine overtemperature. 3. Large, rapid throttle movements. 4. FOD. A) 1, 2. B) 1, 2, 3, 4. C) 1, 4. 169.B02 AMP Generally, when starting a turbine engine, the starter should be disengaged A) after the engine has reached self-accelerating speed. B) only after the engine has reached full idle RPM. C) when the ignition and fuel system are activated. 170.B02 AMP Anti icing of jet engine air inlets is commonly accomplished by A) electrical heating elements inside the inlet guide vanes. B) engine bleed air ducted through the critical areas. C) electrical heating elements located within the engine air inlet cowling. 171.B03 AMP A condition known as 'hot streaking' in turbine engines is caused by A) a partially clogged fuel nozzle. B) a misaligned combustion liner. C) excessive fuel flow. 172.B02 AMP What should be done initially if a turbine engine catches fire when starting? A) Turn off the fuel and continue engine rotation with the starter. B) Continue engine start rotation and discharge a fire extinguisher into the intake. C) Continue starting attempt in order to blow out the fire. 173.B03 AMP In what section of a turbojet engine is the jet nozzle located? A) Combustion. B) Turbine. C) Exhaust. 174.B03 AMP Severe rubbing of turbine engine compressor blades will usually cause A) bowing. B) cracking. C) galling. 175.B03 AMP Newton's First Law of Motion, generally termed the Law of Inertia, states: A) To every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. B) Force is proportional to the product of mass and acceleration. C) Every body persists in its state of rest, or of motion in a straight line, unless acted upon by some outside force. 176.B03 AMP A turbine engine hot section is particularly susceptible to which kind of damage? A) Scoring. B) Cracking. C) Galling. 177.B02 AMP Which two elements make up the axial flow compressor assembly? A) Rotor and stator. B) Compressor and manifold. C) Stator and diffuser. 178.B02 AMP The highest heat to metal contact in a jet engine is the A) burner cans. B) turbine inlet guide vanes. C) turbine blades. 179.B03 AMP If the RPM of an axial flow compressor remains constant, the angle of attack of the rotor blades can be changed by A) changing the velocity of the airflow. B) changing the compressor diameter. C) increasing the pressure ratio. 180.B03 AMP Continued and/or excessive heat and centrifugal force on turbine engine rotor blades is likely to cause A) profile. B) creep. C) galling. 181.B02 AMP An advantage of the centrifugal flow compressor is its high A) pressure rise per stage. B) ram efficiency. C) peak efficiency. 182.B03 AMP Dirt particles in the air being introduced into the compressor of a turbine engine will form a coating on all but which of the following? A) Turbine blades. B) Casings. C) Inlet guide vanes. 183.B03 AMP The compression ratio of an axial flow compressor is a function of the A) number of compressor stages. B) rotor diameter. C) air inlet velocity. 184.B02 AMP Which turbine engine compressor offers the greatest advantages for both starting flexibility and improved high altitude performance? A) Dual stage, centrifugal flow. B) Split spool, axial flow. C) Single spool, axial flow. 185.B02 AMP Reduced blade vibration and improved airflow characteristics in gas turbines are brought about by A) fir tree blade attachment. B) impulse type blades. C) shrouded turbine rotor blades. 186.B03 AMP The Brayton cycle is known as the constant A) pressure cycle. B) temperature cycle. C) mass cycle. 187.B03 AMP If a turbine engine is unable to reach takeoff EPR before its EGT limit is reached, this is an indication that the A) fuel control must be replaced. B) EGT controller is out of adjustment. C) compressor may be contaminated or damaged. 188.B02 AMP Which of the following engine variables is the most critical during turbine engine operation? A) Compressor inlet air temperature. B) Compressor RPM. C) Turbine inlet temperature. 189.B02 AMP The recurrent ingestion of dust or other fine airborne particulates into a turbine engine can result in A) foreign object damage to the compressor section. B) the need for less frequent abrasive grit cleaning of the engine. C) erosion damage to the compressor and turbine sections. 190.B02 AMP Which of the following is the ultimate limiting factor of turbine engine operation? A) Compressor inlet air temperature. B) Turbine inlet temperature. C) Burner can pressure. 191.B02 AMP Jet engine turbine blades removed for detailed inspection must be reinstalled in A) a specified slot 180° away. B) a specified slot 90° away in the direction of rotation. C) the same slot. 192.B03 AMP Which of the following types of combustion sections are used in aircraft turbine engines? A) Annular, variable, and cascade vane. B) Can, multiple can, and variable. C) Multiple can, annular, and can-annular. 193.B03 AMP The exhaust section of a turbine engine is designed to A) impart a high exit velocity to the exhaust gases. B) increase temperature, therefore increasing velocity. C) decrease temperature, therefore decreasing pressure. 194.B02 AMP A purpose of the shrouds on the turbine blades of an axial flow engine is to A) reduce vibration. B) increase tip speed. C) reduce air entrance. 195.B02 AMP The procedure for removing the accumulation of dirt deposits on compressor blades is called A) the soak method. B) field cleaning. C) the purging process. 196.B02 AMP Hot section inspections for many modern turbine engines are required A) only at engine overhaul. B) only when an overtemperature or overspeed has occurred. C) on a time or cycle basis. 197.B02 AMP The two types of centrifugal compressor impellers are A) single entry and double entry. B) rotor and stator. C) impeller and diffuser. 198.B03 AMP Why do some turbine engines have more than one turbine wheel attached to a single shaft? A) To facilitate balancing of the turbine assembly. B) To help stabilize the pressure between the compressor and the turbine. C) To extract more power from the exhaust gases than a single wheel can absorb. 199.B02 AMP Between each row of rotating blades in a turbine engine compressor, there is a row of stationary blades which act to diffuse the air. These stationary blades are called A) buckets. B) rotors. C) stators. 200.B02 AMP When aircraft turbine blades are subjected to excessive heat stress, what type of failures would you expect? A) Bending and torsion. B) Torsion and tension. C) Stress rupture. 201.B02 AMP Which of the following may be used to accomplish internal inspection of an assembled turbine engine? 1. Infrared photography. 2. Ultrasound. 3. A borescope. 4. Fluorescent penetrant and ultraviolet light. A) 1, 2, 3. B) 1, 3. C) 3. 202.B03 AMP What is the possible cause when a turbine engine indicates no change in power setting parameters, but oil temperature is high? A) High scavenge pump oil flow. B) Engine main bearing distress. C) Turbine damage and/or loss of turbine efficiency. 203.B02 AMP Using standard atmospheric conditions, the standard sea level temperature is A) 59 °F. B) 59 °C. C) 29 °C. 204.B02 AMP Standard sea level pressure is A) 29.00 inches Hg. B) 29.29 inches Hg. C) 29.92 inches Hg. 205.B03 AMP Which of the following variables affect the inlet air density of a turbine engine? 1. Speed of the aircraft. 2. Compression ratio. 3. Turbine inlet temperature. 4. Altitude of the aircraft. 5. Ambient temperature. 6. Turbine and compressor efficiency. A) 1, 3, 6. B) 1, 4, 5. C) 4, 5, 6. 206.B02 AMP The velocity of subsonic air as it flows through a convergent nozzle A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains constant. 207.B02 AMP Compressor field cleaning on turbine engines is performed primarily in order to A) prevent engine oil contamination and subsequent engine bearing wear or damage. B) facilitate flight line inspection of engine inlet and compressor areas for defects or FOD. C) prevent engine performance degradation, increased fuel costs, and damage or corrosion to gas path surfaces. 208.C01 AMP Each powerplant installed on an airplane with a Standard Airworthiness Certificate must have been A) type certificated. B) manufactured under the TSO system. C) originally certificated for that aircraft. 209.C01 AMP (1) Serviceability limits for turbine blades are much more stringent than are those for turbine nozzle vanes. (2) A limited number of small nicks and dents can usually be permitted in any area of a turbine blade. Regarding the above statements, A) both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. B) neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. C) only No. 1 is true. 210.C01 AMP Which of the following conditions is usually not acceptable to any extent in turbine blades? A) Cracks. B) Pits. C) Dents. 211.C01 AMP What section in the instructions for continued airworthiness is FAA approved? A) Engine maintenance manual or section. B) Engine overhaul manual or section. C) Airworthiness limitations section. 212.C01 AMP How are discharge nozzles in a fuel injected reciprocating engine identified to indicate the flow range? A) By an identification letter stamped on one of the hexes of the nozzle body. B) By an identification metal tag attached to the nozzle body. C) By color codes on the nozzle body. 213.C01 AMP What publication contains the mandatory replacement time for parts of a turbine engine? A) Engine Manufacturer's service instructions. B) Engine Manufacturer's maintenance manual. C) Airworthiness directive issued by the engine manufacturer. 214.C01 AMP A ground incident that results in propeller sudden stoppage would require a crankshaft runout inspection. What publication would be used to obtain crankshaft runout tolerance? A) Current manufacturer's maintenance instructions. B) Type Certificate Data Sheet. C) AC 43.13-1A, Acceptable Methods, Techniques, and Practices Aircraft Inspection and Repair. 215.C01 AMP What maintenance record(s) is/are required following a major repair of an aircraft engine? A) Entries in engine maintenance records and a list of discrepancies for the FAA. B) Entries in the engine maintenance record and FAA Form 337. C) Entry in logbook. 216.C01 AMP Which of the following contains approved data for performing a major repair to an aircraft engine? A) Engine Type Certificate Data Sheets. B) Supplemental Type Certificates. C) Manufacturer's maintenance instructions when FAA approved. 217.C01 AMP The airworthiness standards for the issue of type certificates for small airplanes with nine or less passenger seats in the normal, utility, and acrobatic categories may be found in the A) Supplemental Type Certificate. B) Federal Aviation Regulations, Part 23. C) Federal Aviation Regulations, Part 21. 218.C01 AMP What publication is used for guidance to determine whether a powerplant repair is major or minor? A) Airworthiness Directives. B) Federal Aviation Regulations, Part 43, appendix A. C) Technical Standard Orders. 219.C01 AMP Which of the following can inspect and approve an engine major repair for return to service? A) Certificated mechanic with airframe and powerplant ratings. B) Certificated mechanic with a powerplant rating. C) Certificated mechanic with inspection authorization. 220.C01 AMP When inspecting an aircraft reciprocating engine what document is used to determine if the proper magnetos are installed? A) Instruction for continued airworthiness issued by the engine manufacturer. B) Engine Manufacturer's Maintenance Manual. C) Aircraft Engine Specifications or Type Certificate Data Sheets. 221.C01 AMP Which of the following is used to monitor the mechanical integrity of the turbines, as well as to check engine operating conditions of a turbine engine? A) Engine oil pressure. B) Exhaust gas temperature. C) Engine pressure ratio. 222.C01 AMP (Refer to figure 1.) Determine which portion of the AD is applicable for Model O-690 series engine, serial No. 5863-40 with 283 hours' time in service. A) (B), (1). B) (A). C) (B), (2). 223.C01 AMP The breaking loose of small pieces of metal from coated surfaces, usually caused by defective plating or excessive loads, is called A) flaking. B) chafing. C) brinelling. 224.C01 AMP Straightening nitrided crankshafts is A) recommended. B) not recommended. C) approved by the manufacturer. 225.C01 AMP You are performing a 100-hour inspection on an R985-22 aircraft engine. What does the '985' indicate? A) The total piston displacement of the engine. B) The pistons will pump a maximum of 985 cubic inches of air per crankshaft revolution. C) The total piston displacement of one cylinder. 226.C01 AMP Which of the following component inspections is to be accomplished on a 100-hour inspection? A) Check internal timing of magneto. B) Check cylinder compression. C) Check valve timing. 227.C01 AMP Which of the following contains a table that lists the engines to which a given propeller is adaptable? A) Aircraft Type Certificate Data Sheets. B) Propeller Type Certificate Data Sheets. C) Engine Type Certificate Data Sheets. 228.C01 AMP When must an Airworthiness Directive (AD) be complied with after it becomes effective? A) As specified in the AD. B) During the next scheduled inspection. C) At the next scheduled overhaul. 229.C01 AMP Which of the following contains a minimum checklist for 100-hour inspections of engines? A) 14 CFR Part 33 Appendix A. B) 14 CFR Part 43 Appendix D. C) Engine Specifications or Type Certificate Data Sheets. 230.C01 AMP (1) Airworthiness Directives are Federal Aviation Regulations and must be complied with unless specific exemption is granted. (2) Airworthiness Directives of an emergency nature may require immediate compliance upon receipt. Regarding the above statements, A) only No. 1 is true. B) only No. 2 is true. C) both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. 231.C01 AMP Select the Airworthiness Directive applicability statement which applies to an IVO 355 engine, serial number T8164, with 2,100 hours' total time and 300 hours since rebuilding. A) Applies to all IVO 355 engines, serial numbers T8000 through T8300, having less than 2,400 hours' total time. B) Applies to all IVO 355 engines, serial numbers T8000 through T8900 with 2,400 hours or more total time. C) Applies to all I.O. and TV10-355 engines, all serial numbers regardless of total time or since overhaul. 232.C01 AMP On a reciprocating engine aircraft using a shrouded exhaust muffler system as a source for cabin heat, the exhaust system should be A) visually inspected for any indication of cracks or an operational carbon monoxide detection test should be done. B) replaced at each reciprocating engine overhaul by a new or overhauled exhaust system or an hydrostatic test should be accomplished. C) removed and the exhaust muffler checked for cracks by using magnetic particle inspection method or an hydrostatic test should be done on the exhaust muffler. 233.C01 AMP A Cessna 180 aircraft has a McCauley propeller Model No. 2A34C50/90A. The propeller is severely damaged in a ground accident, and this model propeller is not available for replacement. Which of the following should be used to find an approved alternate replacement? A) Summary of Supplemental Type Certificates. B) Aircraft Specifications/Type Certificate Data Sheets. C) Aircraft Engine and Propeller Specifications/ Type Certificate Data Sheets. 234.C01 AMP Indentations on bearing races caused by high static loads are known as A) fretting. B) brinelling. C) galling. 235.H02 AMP Which of the following instrument conditions is acceptable and does NOT require immediate correction? 1. Red line missing. 2. Pointer loose on shaft. 3. Glass cracked. 4. Mounting screws loose. 5. Case paint chipped. 6. Leaking at line B nut. 7. Will not zero out. 8. Fogged. A) 1. B) 4. C) 5. 236.H02 AMP An indication of unregulated power changes that result in continual drift of manifold pressure indication on a turbosuper-charged aircraft engine is know as? A) Overshoot B) Waste gate fluctuation C) Bootstrapping 237.H02 AMP A change in engine manifold pressure has a direct effect on the A) piston displacement. B) compression ratio. C) mean effective cylinder pressure. 238.H02 AMP A Bourdon tube instrument may be used to indicate 1. pressure. 2. temperature. 3. position. 4. quantity. A) 1 and 2. B) 1 and 3. C) 2 and 4. 239.H02 AMP What instrument on a gas turbine engine should be monitored to minimize the possibility of a 'hot' start? A) RPM indicator. B) Turbine inlet temperature. C) Torquemeter. 240.H02 AMP Which of the following instrument discrepancies require replacement of the instrument? 1. Red line missing from glass. 2. Glass cracked. 3. Case paint chipped. 4. Will not zero out. 5. Pointer loose on shaft. 6. Mounting screw loose. 7. Leaking at line B nut. 8. Fogged. A) 2, 3, 7, 8. B) 2, 4, 5, 8. C) 1, 2, 4, 7. 241.H02 AMP Jet engine thermocouples are usually constructed of A) chromel alumel. B) iron constantan. C) alumel constantan. 242.H02 AMP The RPM indication of a synchronous ac motor tachometer is governed by the generator A) voltage. B) current. C) frequency. 243.H02 AMP Instruments that measure relatively high fluid pressures, such as oil pressure gauges, are usually what type? A) Vane with calibrated spring. B) Bourdon tube. C) Diaphragm or bellows. 244.H02 AMP Instruments that provide readings of low or negative pressure, such as manifold pressure gauges, are usually what type? A) Vane with calibrated spring. B) Bourdon tube. C) Diaphragm or bellows. 245.H02 AMP In what units are turbine engine tachometers calibrated? A) Percent of engine RPM. B) Actual engine RPM. C) Percent of engine pressure ratio. 246.H02 AMP In a turbine engine, where is the turbine discharge pressure indicator sensor located? A) At the aft end of the compressor section. B) At a location in the exhaust cone that is determined to be subjected to the highest pressures. C) Immediately aft of the last turbine stage. 247.H02 AMP What would be the possible cause if a gas turbine engine has high exhaust gas temperature, high fuel flow, and low RPM at all engine power settings? A) Fuel control out of adjustment. B) Loose or corroded thermocouple probes for the EGT indicator. C) Turbine damage or loss of turbine efficiency. 248.H02 AMP The exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicator on a gas turbine engine provides a relative indication of the A) exhaust temperature. B) temperature of the exhaust gases as they pass the exhaust cone. C) turbine inlet temperature. 249.H02 AMP In regard to using a turbine engine oil analysis program, which of the following is NOT true? A) Generally, an accurate trend forecast may be made after an engine's first oil sample analysis. B) It is best to start an oil analysis program on an engine when it is new. C) A successful oil analysis program should be run over an engine's total operating life so that normal trends can be established. 250.H02 AMP Engine pressure ratio is determined by A) multiplying engine inlet total pressure by turbine outlet total pressure. B) dividing turbine outlet total pressure by engine inlet total pressure. C) dividing engine inlet total pressure by turbine outlet total pressure. 251.H02 AMP A red triangle, dot, or diamond mark on an engine instrument face or glass indicates A) the maximum operating limit for all normal operations. B) the maximum limit for high transients such as starting. C) a restricted operating range. 252.H02 AMP What is the primary purpose of the tachometer on an axial compressor turbine engine? A) Monitor engine RPM during cruise conditions. B) It is the most accurate instrument for establishing thrust settings under all conditions. C) Monitor engine RPM during starting and to indicate overspeed conditions. 253.H02 AMP The EGT gauge used with reciprocating engines is primarily used to furnish temperature readings in order to A) obtain the best mixture setting for fuel efficiency. B) obtain the best mixture setting for engine cooling. C) prevent engine overtemperature. 254.H02 AMP Engine pressure ratio is the total pressure ratio between the A) aft end of the compressor and the aft end of the turbine. B) front of the compressor and the rear of the turbine. C) front of the engine inlet and the aft end of the compressor. 255.H02 AMP On an aircraft turbine engine, operating at a constant power, the application of engine anti-icing will result in A) noticeable shift in EPR. B) a false EPR reading. C) an increase in EPR. 256.H02 AMP Which of the following is a primary engine instrument? A) Tachometer. B) Fuel flowmeter. C) Airspeed indicator. 257.H02 AMP What basic meter is used to indicate cylinder head temperature in most aircraft? A) Electrodynamometer. B) Galvanometer. C) Thermocouple type meter. 258.H02 AMP Which statement is true regarding a thermocouple type cylinder head temperature measuring system? A) The resistance required for cylinder head temperature indicators is measured in farads. B) The voltage output of a thermocouple system is determined by the temperature difference between the two ends of the thermocouple. C) When the master switch is turned on, a thermocouple indicator will move off scale to the low side. 259.H02 AMP Which statement is correct concerning a thermocouple type temperature indicating instrument system? A) It is a balanced type, variable resistor circuit. B) It requires no external power source. C) It usually contains a balancing circuit in the instrument case to prevent fluctuations of the system voltage from affecting the temperature reading. 260.H02 AMP Basically, the indicator of a tachometer system is responsive to change in A) current flow. B) frequency. C) voltage. 261.H02 AMP Where are the hot and cold junctions located in an engine cylinder temperature indicating system? A) Both junctions are located at the instrument. B) Both junctions are located at the cylinder. C) The hot junction is located at the cylinder and the cold junction is located at the instrument. 262.H02 AMP Which of the following types of electric motors are commonly used in electric tachometers? A) Direct current, series wound motors. B) Synchronous motors. C) Direct current, shunt-wound motors. 263.H02 AMP A complete break in the line between the manifold pressure gauge and the induction system will be indicated by the gauge registering A) prevailing atmospheric pressure. B) zero. C) lower than normal for conditions prevailing. 264.H02 AMP A manifold pressure gauge is designed to A) maintain constant pressure in the intake manifold. B) indicate differential pressure between the intake manifold and atmospheric pressure. C) indicate absolute pressure in the intake manifold. 265.H01 AMP On a twin engine aircraft with fuel injected reciprocating engines, one fuel flow indicator reads considerably higher than the other in all engine operating configurations. What is the probable cause of this indication? A) Carburetor icing. B) One or more fuel nozzles are clogged. C) Alternate air door stuck open. 266.H01 AMP The fuel flow indication data sent from motor driven impeller and turbine, and motorless type fuel flow transmitters is a measure of A) fuel mass flow. B) fuel volume flow. C) engine burner pressure drop. 267.H01 AMP In addition to fuel quantity, a computerized fuel system (CFS) with a totalizer indicator provides indication of how many of the following? 1. Fuel flow rate. 2. Fuel used since reset or initial start up. 3. Fuel time remaining at current power setting. 4. Fuel temperature. A) Two. B) Three. C) Four. 268.H01 AMP The fuel flow indication system used with many fuel-injected opposed engine airplanes utilizes a measure of A) fuel flow volume. B) fuel pressure. C) fuel flow mass. 269.H01 AMP The fuel flow indicator rotor and needle for a motor impeller and turbine indicating system is driven by A) an electrical signal. B) direct coupling to the motor shaft. C) a mechanical gear train. 270.H01 AMP Motor driven impeller and turbine fuel flow transmitters are designed to transmit data A) using aircraft electrical system power. B) mechanically. C) by fuel pressure. 271.H01 AMP The principal fault in the pressure type fuel flowmeter indicating system, installed on a horizontally opposed continuous-flow fuel injected aircraft reciprocating engine, is that a plugged fuel injection nozzle will cause a A) normal operation indication. B) lower than normal fuel flow indication. C) higher than normal fuel flow indication. 272.H01 AMP The fuel flowmeter used with a continuous-fuel injection system installed on an aircraft horizontally opposed reciprocating engines measures the fuel pressure drop across the A) manifold valve. B) fuel nozzles. C) metering valve. 273.H01 AMP Which unit most accurately indicates fuel consumption of a reciprocating engine? A) Fuel flowmeter. B) Fuel pressure gauge. C) Electronic fuel quantity indicator. 274.H02 AMP (1) Powerplant instrument range markings show whether the current state of powerplant operation is normal, acceptable for a limited time, or unauthorized. (2) Powerplant instrument range markings are based on installed engine operating limits which may not exceed (but are not necessarily equal to) those limits shown on the engine Type Certificate Data Sheet. Regarding the above statements, A) both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. B) neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. C) only No. 1 is true. 275.H02 AMP What unit in a tachometer system sends information to the indicator? A) The three phase ac generator. B) The two phase ac generator. C) The synchronous motor. 276.H02 AMP (1) Engine pressure ratio (EPR) is a ratio of the exhaust gas pressure to the engine inlet air pressure, and indicates the thrust produced. (2) Engine pressure ratio (EPR) is a ratio of the exhaust gas pressure to the engine inlet air pressure, and indicates volumetric efficiency. Regarding the above statements, A) only No. 1 is true. B) only No. 2 is true. C) both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. 277.H02 AMP Engine oil temperature gauges indicate the temperature of the oil A) entering the oil cooler. B) entering the engine. C) in the oil storage tank. 278.H02 AMP Thermocouple leads A) may be installed with either lead to either post of the indicator. B) are designed for a specific installation and may not be altered. C) may be repaired using solderless connectors. 279.H02 AMP Why do helicopters require a minimum of two synchronous tachometer systems? A) One indicates engine RPM and the other tail rotor RPM. B) One indicates main rotor RPM and the other tail rotor RPM. C) One indicates engine RPM and the other main rotor RPM. 280.H02 AMP If the thermocouple leads were inadvertently crossed at installation, what would the cylinder temperature gauge pointer indicate? A) Normal temperature for prevailing condition. B) Moves off scale on the zero side of the meter. C) Moves off scale on the high side of the meter. 281.H02 AMP A common type of electrically operated oil temperature gauge utilizes A) either a wheatstone bridge or ratiometer circuit. B) a thermocouple type circuit. C) vapor pressure and pressure switches. 282.H02 AMP (1) Generally, when a turbine engine indicates high EGT for a particular EPR (when there is no significant damage), it means that the engine is out of trim. (2) Some turbine powered aircraft use RPM as the primary indicator of thrust produced, others use EPR as the primary indicator. Regarding the above statements, A) only No. 1 is true. B) only No. 2 is true. C) both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. 283.H02 AMP The indication on a thermocouple-type cylinder head temperature indicator is produced by A) resistance changes in two dissimilar metals. B) a difference in the voltage between two dissimilar metals. C) a current generated by the temperature difference between dissimilar metal hot and cold junctions. 284.I01 AMP What is the operating principle of the spot detector sensor in a fire detection system? A) Resistant core material that prevents current flow at normal temperatures. B) A conventional thermocouple that produces a current flow. C) A bimetallic thermoswitch that closes when heated to a high temperature. 285.I01 AMP In a fixed fire-extinguishing system, there are two small lines running from the system and exiting overboard. These line exit ports are covered with a blowout type indicator disc. Which of the following statements is true? A) When the red indicator disc is missing, it indicates the fire extinguishing system has been normally discharged. B) When the yellow indicator disc is missing, it indicates the fire extinguishing system has been normally discharged. C) When the green indicator disc is missing, it indicates the fire extinguishing system has had a thermal discharge. 286.I01 AMP Two continuous-loop fire detection systems that will not test due to a broken detector element are the A) Kidde system and the Lindberg system. B) Kidde system and the Fenwal system. C) thermocouple system and the Lindberg system. 287.I01 AMP Which of the following fire detection systems measures temperature rise compared to a reference temperature? A) Thermocouple. B) Thermal switch. C) Lindberg continuous element. 288.I01 AMP A fire involving energized electrical equipment is defined as a A) class B fire. B) class D fire. C) class C fire. 289.I01 AMP How are most aircraft turbine engine fire extinguishing systems activated? A) Electrically discharged cartridges. B) Manual remote control valve. C) Pushrod assembly. 290.I01 AMP A fire detection system that operates on the rate of temperature rise is a A) continuous loop system. B) thermocouple system. C) thermal switch system. 291.I01 AMP Why does one type of Fenwal fire detection system use spot detectors wired in parallel between two separate circuits? A) To provide an installation that is equal to two separate systems: a primary system and a secondary, or back-up system. B) So that a double fault may exist in the system without sounding a false alarm. C) So that a single fault may exist in the system without sounding a false alarm 292.I01 AMP How does carbon dioxide (CO2) extinguish an aircraft engine fire? A) Contact with the air converts the liquid into snow and gas which smothers the flame. B) By lowering the temperature to a point where combustion will not take place. C) The high pressure spray lowers the temperature and blows out the fire. 293.I01 AMP A fuel or oil fire is defined as a A) class B fire. B) class A fire. C) class C fire. 294.I01 AMP Which of the following is the safest fire extinguishing agent to use from a standpoint of toxicity and corrosion hazards? A) Dibromodifluoromethane (Halon 1202). B) Bromochlorodifluoromethane (Halon 1211). C) Bromotrifluoromethane (Halon 1301). 295.I01 AMP The explosive cartridge in the discharge valve of a fire extinguisher container is A) a life dated unit. B) not a life dated unit. C) mechanically fired. 296.I01 AMP A fire detection system operates on the principle of a buildup of gas pressure within a tube proportional to temperature. Which of the following systems does this statement define? A) Kidde continuous loop system. B) Lindberg continuous element system. C) Thermal switch system. 297.I01 AMP The most satisfactory extinguishing agent for a carburetor or intake fire is A) carbon dioxide. B) dry chemical. C) methyl bromide. 298.I01 AMP How is the fire extinguishing agent distributed in the engine section? A) Spray nozzles and fluid pumps. B) Nitrogen pressure and slinger rings. C) Spray nozzles and perforated tubing. 299.I01 AMP (Refer to figure 2.) Determine the fire extinguisher container pressure limits when the temperature is 75 °F. A) 326 minimum and 415 maximum. B) 330 minimum and 419 maximum. C) 338 minimum and 424 maximum. 300.I01 AMP What is the principle of operation of the continuous loop fire detector system sensor? A) Fuse material which melts at high temperatures. B) Core resistance material which prevents current flow at normal temperatures. C) A bimetallic thermoswitch which closes when heated to a high temperature. 301.I01 AMP The fire detection system that uses a single wire surrounded by a continuous string of ceramic beads in a tube is the A) Fenwal system. B) Kidde system. C) thermocouple system. 302.I01 AMP The fire detection system that uses two wires imbedded in a ceramic core within a tube is the A) Fenwal system. B) Lindberg system. C) Kidde system. 303.I01 AMP A continuous loop fire detector is what type of detector? A) Spot detector. B) Overheat detector. C) Rate of temperature rise detector. 304.I01 AMP Which of the following fire detection systems will detect a fire when an element is inoperative but will not test when the test circuit is energized? A) The Kidde system and the thermocouple system. B) The Kidde system and the Fenwal system. C) The thermocouple system and the Lindberg system. 305.I01 AMP After a fire is extinguished, or overheat condition removed in aircraft equipped with a Systron-Donner fire detector, the detection system A) must be manually reset. B) automatically resets. C) sensing component must be replaced. 306.I01 AMP For fire detection and extinguishing purposes, aircraft powerplant areas are divided into fire zones based on A) hot and cold sections of the engine. B) the volume and smoothness of the airflow through engine compartments. C) engine type and size. 307.I01 AMP What is the function of a fire detection system? A) To discharge the powerplant fire extinguishing system at the origin of the fire. B) To activate a warning device in the event of a powerplant fire. C) To identify the location of a powerplant fire. 308.I01 AMP (Refer to figure 3.) What are the fire-extinguisher container pressure limits when the temperature is 50 F? A) 425 - 575 PSIG. B) 435 - 605 PSIG. C) 475 - 625 PSIG. 309.I01 AMP What retains the nitrogen charge and fire extinguishing agent in a high rate of discharge (HRD) container? A) Breakable disk and fusible disk. B) Pressure switch and check tee valve. C) Pressure gauge and cartridge. 310.I01 AMP The use of water on class D fires A) is most effective if sprayed in a fine mist. B) will cause the fire to burn more violently and can cause explosions. C) has no effect. 311.I01 AMP The pulling out (or down) of an illuminated fire handle in a typical large jet aircraft fire protection system commonly accomplishes what events? A) Closes all firewall shutoff valves, disconnects the generator, and discharges a fire bottle. B) Closes fuel shutoff, closes hydraulic shutoff, disconnects the generator field, and arms the fire extinguishing system. C) Closes fuel shutoff, closes hydraulic shutoff, closes the oxygen shutoff, disconnects the generator field, and arms the fire-extinguishing system. 312.I01 AMP The most satisfactory extinguishing agent for an electrical fire is A) carbon tetrachloride. B) carbon dioxide. C) methyl bromide. 313.I01 AMP Which of the following fire detectors are commonly used in the power section of an engine nacelle? A) CO detectors. B) Smoke detectors. C) Rate of temperature rise detectors. 314.I01 AMP Which of the following fire detection systems uses heat in the normal testing of the system? A) The thermocouple system and the Lindberg system. B) The Kidde system and the Fenwal system. C) The thermocouple system and the Fenwal system. 315.J02 AMP Electrical switches are rated according to the A) voltage and the current they can control. B) resistance rating of the switch and the wiring. C) resistance and the temperature rating. 316.J02 AMP When selecting an electrical switch for installation in an aircraft circuit utilizing a direct current motor, A) a switch designed for dc should be chosen. B) a derating factor should be applied. C) only switches with screw type terminal connections should be used. 317.J01 AMP Alternators (ac generators) that are driven by a constant-speed drive (CSD) mechanism are used to regulate the alternator to a constant A) voltage output. B) amperage output. C) hertz output. 318.J02 AMP ON-OFF two position engine electrical switches should be installed A) so that the toggle will move in the same direction as the desired motion of the unit controlled. B) under a guard. C) so the ON position is reached by a forward or upward motion. 319.J02 AMP When the starter switch to the aircraft gas turbine engine starter-generator is energized and the engine fails to rotate, one of the probable causes would be the A) power lever switch is defective. B) undercurrent solenoid contacts are defective. C) starter solenoid is defective. 320.J02 AMP When a 28 volt, 75 ampere generator is installed on an aircraft, an electrical load analysis ground check is performed and it is determined that the battery is furnishing 57 amperes to the system, with all electrical equipment operating. This indicates A) that the generator load will exceed the generator limit. B) the load will be within the generator load limit. C) the load exceeds the maximum system percentage capacity. 321.J02 AMP The maximum allowable voltage drop between the generator and the bus bar is A) 1 percent of the regulated voltage. B) 2 percent of the regulated voltage. C) less than the voltage drop permitted between the battery and the bus bar. 322.J02 AMP (1) Most modern aircraft use circuit breakers rather than fuses to protect their electrical circuits. (2) Federal Aviation Regulations Part 23 requires that all electrical circuits incorporate some form of circuit protective device. Regarding the above statements, A) only No. 1 is true. B) only No. 2 is true. C) both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. 323.J02 AMP Bonding jumpers should be designed and installed in such a manner that they A) are not subjected to flexing by relative motion of airframe or engine components. B) provide a low electrical resistance in the ground circuit. C) prevent buildup of a static electrical charge between the airframe and the surrounding atmosphere. 324.J01 AMP What is used to polish commutators or slip rings? A) Very fine sandpaper. B) Crocus cloth or fine oilstone. C) Aluminum oxide or garnet paper. 325.J02 AMP The time/current capacities of a circuit breaker or fuse must be A) above those of the associated conductor. B) equal to those of the associated conductor. C) below those of the associated conductor. 326.J02 AMP (Refer to figure 4.) In a 28-volt system, what is the maximum continuous current that can be carried by a single No. 10 copper wire 25 feet long, routed in free air? A) 20 amperes. B) 35 amperes. C) 28 amperes. 327.J01 AMP A high surge of current is required when a dc electric motor is first started. As the speed of the motor increases, A) the counter emf decreases proportionally. B) the applied emf increases proportionally. C) the counter emf builds up and opposes the applied emf, thus reducing the current flow through the armature. 328.J02 AMP Which Federal Aviation Regulation specifies that each resettable circuit protective device requires a manual operation to restore service after the device has interrupted the circuit? A) 14 CFR Part 23. B) 14 CFR Part 43. C) 14 CFR Part 91. 329.J02 AMP When installing electrical wiring parallel to a fuel line, the wiring should be A) in metal conduit. B) in a non-conductive fire-resistant sleeve. C) above the fuel line. 330.J02 AMP What speed must an eight-pole ac generator turn to produce 400-Hertz ac? A) 400 RPM. B) 1,200 RPM. C) 6,000 RPM. 331.J01 AMP Upon what does the output frequency of an ac generator (alternator) depend? A) The speed of rotation and the strength of the field. B) The speed of rotation, the strength of the field, and the number of field poles. C) The speed of rotation and the number of field poles. 332.J02 AMP What type of lubricant may be used to aid in pulling electrical wires or cables through conduits? A) Silicone grease. B) Soapstone talc. C) Rubber lubricant. 333.J01 AMP If a generator is malfunctioning, its voltage can be reduced to residual by actuating the A) rheostat. B) generator master switch. C) master solenoid. 334.J02 AMP Arcing at the brushes and burning of the commutator of a motor may be caused by A) weak brush springs. B) excessive brush spring tension. C) low mica. 335.J02 AMP Which Federal Aviation Regulation requirement prevents the use of automatic reset circuit breakers? A) 14 CFR Part 21. B) 14 CFR Part 23. C) 14 CFR Part 91. 336.J01 AMP What is the purpose of a reverse current cutout relay? A) It eliminates the possibility of reversed polarity of the generator output current. B) It prevents fluctuations of generator voltage. C) It opens the main generator circuit whenever the generator voltage drops below the battery voltage. 337.J01 AMP Electric motors are often classified according to the method of connecting the field coils and armature. Aircraft engine starter motors are generally of which type? A) Compound. B) Series. C) Shunt (parallel). 338.J02 AMP (Refer to figure 4.) The following data concerning the installation of an electrical unit is known: current requirements for continuous operation - 11 amperes; measured cable length - 45 feet; system voltage - 28 volts (do not exceed 1 volt drop); cable in conduit and bundles. What is the minimum size copper electrical cable that may be selected? A) No. 10. B) No. 12. C) No. 14. 339.J01 AMP The constant current method of charging a ni-cad battery A) will bring it up to fully charged in the shortest amount of time. B) will lead to cell imbalance over a period of time. C) is the method most effective in maintaining cell balance. 340.J01 AMP The generating system of an aircraft charges the battery by using A) constant current and varying voltage. B) constant voltage and varying current. C) constant voltage and constant current. 341.J01 AMP As the generator load is increased (within its rated capacity), the voltage will A) decrease and the amperage output will increase. B) remain constant and the amperage output will increase. C) remain constant and the amperage output will decrease. 342.J01 AMP The part of a dc alternator power system that prevents reverse flow of current from the battery to the alternator is the A) reverse current relay. B) voltage regulator. C) rectifier. 343.J01 AMP The reason for flashing the field in a generator is to A) restore correct polarity and/or residual magnetism to the field poles. B) increase generator capacity. C) remove excessive deposits. 344.J01 AMP What is the frequency of most aircraft alternating current? A) 115 Hertz. B) 60 Hertz. C) 400 Hertz. 345.J02 AMP What is the maximum number of bonding jumper wires that may be attached to one terminal grounded to a flat surface? A) Two. B) Three. C) Four. 346.J01 AMP As the flux density in the field of a dc generator increases and the current flow to the system increases, the A) generator voltage decreases. B) generator amperage decreases. C) force required to turn the generator increases. 347.J02 AMP The maximum number of terminals that may be connected to any one terminal stud in an aircraft electrical system is A) two. B) three. C) four. 348.J01 AMP What are two types of ac motors that are used to produce a relatively high torque? A) Shaded pole and shunt field. B) Shunt field and single phase. C) Three phase induction and capacitor start. 349.J02 AMP Which of the following is regulated in a generator to control its voltage output? A) Speed of the armature. B) Number of windings in the armature. C) The strength of the field. 350.J01 AMP How many hours will a 140 ampere hour battery deliver 15 amperes? A) 1.40 hours. B) 9.33 hours. C) 14.0 hours. 351.J01 AMP Generator voltage will not build up when the field is flashed and solder is found on the brush cover plate. These are most likely indications of A) an open armature. B) excessive brush arcing. C) armature shaft bearings overheating. 352.J01 AMP What is the ampere-hour rating of a storage battery that is designed to deliver 45 amperes for 2.5 hours? A) 112.5 ampere hour. B) 90.0 ampere hour. C) 45.0 ampere hour. 353.J01 AMP Why is it unnecessary to flash the field of the exciter on a brushless alternator? A) The exciter is constantly charged by battery voltage. B) Brushless alternators do not have exciters. C) Permanent magnets are installed in the main field poles. 354.J01 AMP What precaution is usually taken to prevent electrolyte from freezing in a lead acid battery? A) Place the aircraft in a hangar. B) Remove the battery and keep it under constant charge. C) Keep the battery fully charged. 355.J01 AMP One way that the automatic ignition relight systems are activated on gas turbine engines is by a A) drop in compressor discharge pressure. B) sensing switch located in the tailpipe. C) drop in fuel flow. 356.J01 AMP (1) Alternators are rated in volt amps, which is a measure of the apparent power being produced by the generator. (2) Alternating current has the advantage over direct current in that its voltage and current can easily be stepped up or down. Regarding the above statements, A) only No. 1 is true. B) only No. 2 is true. C) both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. 357.J02 AMP In order to reduce the possibility of ground shorting the circuits when the connectors are separated for maintenance, the AN and MS electrical connectors should be installed with the A) socket section on the ground side of the electrical circuit. B) pin section on the ground side of the electrical circuit. C) pin section on the positive side of the electrical circuit. 358.J02 AMP (1) Electrical circuit protection devices are rated based on the amount of current that can be carried without overheating the wiring insulation. (2) A 'trip free' circuit breaker makes it impossible to manually hold the circuit closed when excessive current is flowing. Regarding the above statements, A) only No. 1 is true. B) only No. 2 is true. C) both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. 359.J02 AMP Which of the following Federal Aviation Regulations require that all aircraft using fuses as the circuit protective devices carry 'one spare set of fuses, or three spare fuses of each kind required'? A) 14 CFR Part 23. B) 14 CFR Part 43. C) 14 CFR Part 91. 360.J02 AMP What is the smallest terminal stud allowed for aircraft electrical power systems? A) No. 6. B) No. 8. C) No. 10. 361.J02 AMP A typical barrier type aircraft terminal strip is made of A) paper base phenolic compound. B) polyester resin and graphite compound. C) layered aluminum impregnated with compound. 362.J01 AMP If the points in a vibrator type voltage regulator stick in the closed position while the generator is operating, what will be the probable result? A) Generator output voltage will decrease. B) Generator output voltage will not be affected. C) Generator output voltage will increase. 363.J02 AMP A term commonly used when two or more electrical terminals are installed on a single lug of a terminal strip is A) strapping. B) stepping. C) stacking. 364.J02 AMP (1) Electrical wires larger than 10 gauge use uninsulated terminals. (2) Electrical wires smaller than 10 gauge use uninsulated terminals. Regarding the above statements, A) only No. 1 is true. B) only No. 2 is true. C) neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. 365.J02 AMP When does current flow through the coil of a solenoid operated electrical switch? A) Continually, as long as the aircraft's electrical system master switch is on. B) Continually, as long as the control circuit is complete. C) Only until the movable points contact the stationary points. 366.J02 AMP Which of the following aircraft circuits does NOT contain a fuse/circuit breaker? A) Generator circuit. B) Air conditioning circuit. C) Starter circuit. 367.J02 AMP Aircraft electrical wire size is measured according to the A) Military Specification system. B) American Wire Gauge system. C) Technical Standard Order system. 368.J01 AMP The most effective method of regulating aircraft direct current generator output is to vary, according to the load requirements, the A) strength of the stationary field. B) generator speed. C) number of rotating armature loops in use. 369.J01 AMP What is a basic advantage of using ac for electrical power for a large aircraft? A) AC systems operate at higher voltage than dc systems and therefore use less current and can use smaller and lighter weight wiring. B) AC systems operate at lower voltage than dc systems and therefore use less current and can use smaller and lighter weight wiring. C) AC systems operate at higher voltage than dc systems and therefore use more current and can use smaller and lighter weight wiring. 370.J02 AMP The resistance of the current return path through the aircraft is always considered negligible, provided the A) voltage drop across the circuit is checked. B) generator is properly grounded. C) structure is adequately bonded. 371.J01 AMP How are the rotor windings of an aircraft alternator usually excited? A) By a constant ac voltage from the battery. B) By a constant ac voltage. C) By a variable direct current. 372.J02 AMP Aircraft copper electrical wire is coated with tin, silver, or nickel in order to A) improve conductivity. B) add strength. C) prevent oxidization. 373.J02 AMP When installing an electrical switch, under which of the following conditions should the switch be derated from its nominal current rating? A) Conductive circuits. B) Capacitive circuits. C) Direct current motor circuits. 374.J02 AMP As a general rule, starter brushes are replaced when they are approximately A) one half their original length. B) one-third their original length. C) two-thirds their original length. 375.J01 AMP According to the electron theory of the flow of electricity, when a properly functioning dc alternator and voltage regulating system is charging an aircraft's battery, the direction of current flow through the battery A) is into the negative terminal and out the positive terminal. B) is into the positive terminal and out the negative terminal. C) cycles back and forth with the number of cycles per second being controlled by the rotational speed of the alternator. 376.J01 AMP Aircraft that operate more than one generator connected to a common electrical system must be provided with A) automatic generator switches that operate to isolate any generator whose output is less than 80 percent of its share of the load. B) an automatic device that will isolate nonessential loads from the system if one of the generators fails. C) individual generator switches that can be operated from the cockpit during flight. 377.J02 AMP Electrical circuit protection devices are installed primarily to protect the A) switches. B) units. C) wiring. 378.J01 AMP Why is a constant speed drive used to control the speed of some aircraft engine driven generators? A) So that the voltage output of the generator will remain within limits. B) To eliminate uncontrolled surges of current to the electrical system. C) So that the frequency of the alternating current output will remain constant. 379.J01 AMP What type of electric motor is generally used with a direct-cranking engine starter? A) Direct current, shunt-wound motor. B) Direct current, series-wound motor. C) Synchronous motor. 380.J01 AMP The stationary field strength in a direct current generator is varied A) by the reverse-current relay. B) because of generator speed. C) according to the load requirements. 381.J01 AMP A certain direct current series motor mounted within an aircraft draws more amperes during start than when it is running under its rated load. The most logical conclusion that may be drawn is A) the starting winding is shorted. B) the brushes are floating at operating RPM because of weak brush springs. C) the condition is normal for this type of motor. 382.J01 AMP What device is used to convert alternating current, which has been induced into the loops of the rotating armature of a dc generator, to direct current? A) A rectifier. B) A commutator. C) An inverter. 383.K02 AMP (1) Fuel may be used to cool oil in gas turbine engines. (2) Ram air may be used to cool oil in gas turbine engines. Regarding the above statements, A) only No. 1 is true. B) only No. 2 is true. C) both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. 384.K02 AMP Oil picks up the most heat from which of the following turbine engine components? A) Rotor coupling. B) Compressor bearing. C) Turbine bearing. 385.K02 AMP In an axial flow turbine engine, compressor bleed air is sometimes used to aid in cooling the A) fuel. B) inlet guide vanes. C) turbine, vanes, blades, and bearings. 386.K02 AMP What prevents pressure within the lubricating oil tank from rising above or falling below ambient pressure (reciprocating engine)? A) Oil tank check valve. B) Oil pressure relief valve. C) Oil tank vent. 387.K02 AMP In a jet engine which uses a fuel oil heat exchanger, the oil temperature is controlled by a thermostatic valve that regulates the flow of A) fuel through the heat exchanger. B) both fuel and oil through the heat exchanger. C) oil through the heat exchanger. 388.K02 AMP What is the purpose of the last chance oil filters? A) To prevent damage to the oil spray nozzle. B) To filter the oil immediately before it enters the main bearings. C) To assure a clean supply of oil to the lubrication system. 389.K02 AMP Which of the following is a function of the fuel oil heat exchanger on a turbojet engine? A) Aerates the fuel. B) Emulsifies the oil. C) Increases fuel temperature. 390.K02 AMP In a reciprocating engine oil system, the temperature bulb senses oil temperature A) at a point after the oil has passed through the oil cooler. B) while the oil is in the hottest area of the engine. C) immediately before the oil enters the oil cooler. 391.K02 AMP Why are fixed orifice nozzles used in the lubrication system of gas turbine engines? A) To provide a relatively constant oil flow to the main bearings at all engine speeds. B) To keep back pressure on the oil pump, thus preventing an air lock. C) To protect the oil seals by preventing excessive pressure from entering the bearing cavities. 392.K02 AMP At cruise RPM, some oil will flow through the relief valve of a gear type engine oil pump. This is normal as the relief valve is set at a pressure which is A) lower than the pump inlet pressure. B) lower than the pressure pump capabilities. C) higher than pressure pump capabilities. 393.K02 AMP What will happen to the return oil if the oil line between the scavenger pump and the oil cooler separates? A) Oil will accumulate in the engine. B) The return oil will be pumped overboard. C) The scavenger return line check valve will close and force the oil to bypass directly to the intake side of the pressure pump. 394.K02 AMP The oil dampened main bearing utilized in some turbine engines is used to A) provide lubrication of bearings from the beginning of starting rotation until normal oil pressure is established. B) provide an oil film between the outer race and the bearing housing in order to reduce vibration tendencies in the rotor system, and to allow for slight misalignment. C) dampen surges in oil pressure to the bearings. 395.K02 AMP The engine oil temperature regulator is usually located between which of the following on a dry sump reciprocating engine? A) The engine oil supply pump and the internal lubrication system. B) The scavenger pump outlet and the oil storage tank. C) The oil storage tank and the engine oil supply pump. 396.K02 AMP After making a welded repair to a pressurized type turbine engine oil tank, the tank should be pressure checked to A) not less than 5 PSI plus the maximum operating pressure of the tank. B) not less than 5 PSI plus the average operating pressure of the tank. C) 5 PSI. 397.K02 AMP Possible failure related ferrous metal particles in turbine engine oil cause an (electrical) indicating type magnetic chip detector to indicate their presence by A) disturbing the magnetic lines of flux around the detector tip. B) bridging the gap between the detector center (positive) electrode and the ground electrode. C) generating a small electric current that is caused by the particles being in contact with the dissimilar metal of the detector tip. 398.K02 AMP What would be the probable result if the oil system pressure relief valve should stick in the open position on a turbine engine? A) Increased oil pressure. B) Decreased oil temperature. C) Insufficient lubrication. 399.K02 AMP What is the primary purpose of the oil to fuel heat exchanger? A) Cool the fuel. B) Cool the oil. C) De aerate the oil. 400.K02 AMP Low oil pressure can be detrimental to the internal engine components. However, high oil pressure A) should be limited to the engine manufacturer's recommendations. B) has a negligible effect. C) will not occur because of pressure losses around the bearings. 401.K02 AMP What is the primary purpose of the oil breather pressurization system that is used on turbine engines? A) Prevents foaming of the oil. B) Allows aeration of the oil for better lubrication because of the air/oil mist. C) Provides a proper oil spray pattern from the main bearing oil jets. 402.K03 AMP What is the source of most of the heat that is absorbed by the lubricating oil in a reciprocating engine? A) Crankshaft main bearings. B) Exhaust valves. C) Pistons and cylinder walls. 403.K01 AMP What type of oil system is usually found on turbine engines? A) Dry sump, pressure, and spray. B) Dry sump, dip, and splash. C) Wet sump, spray, and splash. 404.K01 AMP What will be the result of operating an engine in extremely high temperatures using a lubricant recommended by the manufacturer for a much lower temperature? A) The oil pressure will be higher than normal. B) The oil temperature and oil pressure will be higher than normal. C) The oil pressure will be lower than normal. 405.K01 AMP (1) Gas turbine and reciprocating engine oils can be mixed or used interchangeably. (2) Most gas turbine engine oils are synthetic. Regarding the above statements, A) only No. 2 is true. B) both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. C) neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. 406.K01 AMP The time in seconds required for exactly 60 cubic centimeters of oil to flow through an accurately calibrated orifice at a specific temperature is recorded as a measurement of the oil's A) flash point. B) specific gravity. C) viscosity. 407.K01 AMP Upon what quality or characteristic of a lubricating oil is its viscosity index based? A) Its resistance to flow at a standard temperature as compared to high grade paraffin base oil at the same temperature. B) Its rate of change in viscosity with temperature change. C) Its rate of flow through an orifice at a standard temperature. 408.K01 AMP Compared to reciprocating engine oils, the types of oils used in turbine engines A) are required to carry and disperse a higher level of combustion by-products. B) may permit a somewhat higher level of carbon formation in the engine. C) have less tendency to produce lacquer or coke. 409.K01 AMP The oil used in reciprocating engines has a relatively high viscosity due to A) the reduced ability of thin oils to maintain adequate film strength at altitude (reduced atmospheric pressure). B) the relatively high rotational speeds. C) large clearances and high operating temperatures. 410.K01 AMP If all other requirements can be met, what type of oil should be used to achieve theoretically perfect engine lubrication? A) The thinnest oil that will stay in place and maintain a reasonable film strength. B) An oil that combines high viscosity and low demulsibility. C) An oil that combines a low viscosity index and a high neutralization number. 411.K01 AMP In addition to lubricating (reducing friction between moving parts), engine oil performs what functions? 1. Cools. 2. Seals. 3. Cleans. 4. Prevents corrosion. 5. Cushions impact (shock) loads. A) 1, 2, 3, 4. B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. C) 1, 3, 4. 412.K02 AMP As a general rule, the mixture setting on a reciprocating engine operating at or near takeoff power that provides the best cooling is A) FULL RICH. B) LEAN. C) FULL LEAN. 413.K01 AMP The viscosity of a liquid is a measure of its A) resistance to flow. B) rate of change of internal friction with change in temperature. C) weight, or density. 414.K03 AMP How are the teeth of the gears in the accessory section of an engine normally lubricated? A) By splashed or sprayed oil. B) By submerging the load bearing portions in oil. C) By surrounding the load bearing portions with baffles or housings within which oil pressure can be maintained. 415.K01 AMP Which of the following factors helps determine the proper grade of oil to use in a particular engine? A) Adequate lubrication in various attitudes of flight. B) Positive introduction of oil to the bearings. C) Operating speeds of bearings. 416.K01 AMP Specific gravity is a comparison of the weight of a substance to the weight of an equal volume of A) oil at a specific temperature. B) distilled water at a specific temperature. C) mercury at a specific temperature. 417.K01 AMP What advantage do mineral base lubricants have over vegetable oil base lubricants when used in aircraft engines? A) Cooling ability. B) Chemical stability. C) Friction resistance. 418.K01 AMP The recommended aircraft engine lubricants are A) mineral or synthetic based. B) vegetable, mineral, or synthetic based. C) animal, mineral, or synthetic based. 419.K01 AMP High tooth pressures and high rubbing velocities, such as occur with spur type gears, require the use of A) an EP lubricant. B) straight mineral oil. C) metallic ash detergent oil. 420.K01 AMP Manufacturers normally require turbine engine oil servicing within a short time after engine shutdown primarily to A) prevent overservicing. B) help dilute and neutralize any contaminants that may already be present in the engine's oil system. C) provide a better indication of any oil leaks in the system. 421.K01 AMP What type of oil do most engine manufacturers recommend for new reciprocating engine break in? A) Ashless dispersant oil. B) Straight mineral oil. C) Semi synthetic oil. 422.K03 AMP In order to relieve excessive pump pressure in an engine's internal oil system, most engines are equipped with a A) vent. B) bypass valve. C) relief valve. 423.K02 AMP The type of oil pumps most commonly used on turbine engines are classified as A) positive displacement. B) variable displacement. C) constant speed. 424.K01 AMP Which of these characteristics is desirable in turbine engine oil? A) Low flash point. B) High flash point. C) High volatility. 425.K03 AMP If the oil in the oil cooler core and annular jacket becomes congealed, what unit prevents damage to the cooler? A) Oil pressure relief valve. B) Airflow control valve. C) Surge protection valve. 426.K03 AMP The valve assemblies of opposed reciprocating engines are lubricated by means of a A) gravity feed system. B) splash and spray system. C) pressure system. 427.K03 AMP What will result if an oil filter becomes completely blocked? A) Oil will flow at a reduced rate through the system. B) Oil flow to the engine will stop. C) Oil will flow at the normal rate through the system. 428.K03 AMP A turbine engine dry sump lubrication system of the self contained, high pressure design A) has no heat exchanger. B) consists of pressure, breather, and scavenge subsystems. C) stores oil in the engine crankcase. 429.K03 AMP How are the piston pins of most aircraft engines lubricated? A) By pressure oil through a drilled passageway in the heavy web portion of the connecting rod. B) By oil which is sprayed or thrown by the master or connecting rods. C) By the action of the oil control ring and the series of holes drilled in the ring groove directing oil to the pin and piston pin boss. 430.K03 AMP The vent line connecting the oil supply tank and the engine in some dry sump engine installations permits A) pressurization of the oil supply to prevent cavitation of the oil supply pump. B) oil vapors from the engine to be condensed and drained into the oil supply tank. C) the oil tank to be vented through the normal engine vent. 431.K03 AMP What is the purpose of the check valve generally used in a dry sump lubrication system? A) To prevent the scavenger pump from losing its prime. B) To prevent the oil from the supply tank from seeping into the crankcase during inoperative periods. C) To prevent the oil from the pressure pump from entering the scavenger system. 432.K03 AMP Where is the oil of a dry sump reciprocating engine exposed to the temperature control valve sensing unit? A) Oil cooler inlet. B) Engine outlet. C) Engine inlet. 433.K02 AMP The purpose of directing bleed air to the outer turbine case on some engines is to A) provide optimum turbine blade tip clearance by controlling thermal expansion. B) provide up to 100 percent kinetic energy extraction from the flowing gases. C) allow operation in a thermal environment 600 to 800 °F above the temperature limits of turbine blade and vane alloys. 434.K03 AMP In order to maintain a constant oil pressure as the clearances between the moving parts of an engine increase through normal wear, the supply pump output A) increases as the resistance offered to the flow of oil increases. B) remains relatively constant (at a given RPM) with less oil being returned to the pump inlet by the relief valve. C) remains relatively constant (at a given RPM) with more oil being returned to the pump inlet by the relief valve. 435.K03 AMP In a reciprocating engine, oil is directed from the pressure relief valve to the inlet side of the A) scavenger pump. B) oil temperature regulator. C) pressure pump. 436.K03 AMP An engine lubrication system pressure relief valve is usually located between the A) oil cooler and the scavenger pump. B) scavenger pump and the external oil system. C) pump and the internal oil system. 437.K03 AMP The primary source of oil contamination in a normally operating reciprocating engine is A) metallic deposits as a result of engine wear. B) atmospheric dust and pollution. C) combustion deposits due to combustion chamber blow by and oil migration on the cylinder walls. 438.K03 AMP A drop in oil pressure may be caused by A) the temperature regulator sticking open. B) the bypass valve sticking open. C) foreign material under the relief valve. 439.K03 AMP The main oil filters strain the oil at which point in the system? A) Immediately after it leaves the scavenger pump. B) Immediately before it enters the pressure pump. C) Just as it leaves the pressure pump. 440.K03 AMP Which type valve prevents oil from entering the main accessory case when the engine is not running? A) Bypass. B) Relief. C) Check. 441.K03 AMP An oil tank having a capacity of 5 gallons must have an expansion space of A) 2 quarts. B) 4 quarts. C) 5 quarts. 442.K03 AMP As a general rule, a small amount of small fuzzy particles or gray metallic paste on a turbine engine magnetic chip detector A) is considered to be the result of normal wear. B) indicates an imminent component failure. C) indicates accelerated generalized wear. 443.K03 AMP Why is expansion space required in an engine oil supply tank? A) To eliminate oil foaming. B) For oil enlargement and collection of foam. C) For proper oil tank ventilation. 444.K03 AMP The purpose of a dwell chamber in a turbine engine oil tank is to provide A) a collection point for sediments. B) for a pressurized oil supply to the oil pump inlet. C) separation of entrained air from scavenged oil. 445.K03 AMP Which of the following bearing types must be continuously lubricated by pressure oil? A) Ball. B) Roller. C) Plain. 446.K03 AMP The purpose of a relief valve installed in the tank venting system of a turbine engine oil tank is to A) prevent oil pump cavitation by maintaining a constant pressure on the oil pump inlet. B) maintain internal tank air pressure at the ambient atmospheric level regardless of altitude or rate of change in altitude. C) maintain a positive internal pressure in the oil tank after shutdown to prevent oil pump cavitation on engine start. 447.K03 AMP From the following, identify the factor that has the least effect on the oil consumption of a specific engine. A) Mechanical efficiency. B) Engine RPM. C) Lubricant characteristics. 448.K03 AMP Under which of the following conditions is the oil cooler flow control valve open on a reciprocating engine? A) When the temperature of the oil returning from the engine is too high. B) When the temperature of the oil returning from the engine is too low. C) When the scavenger pump output volume exceeds the engine pump input volume. 449.K03 AMP How is the oil collected by the piston oil ring returned to the crankcase? A) Down vertical slots cut in the piston wall between the piston oil ring groove and the piston skirt. B) Through holes drilled in the piston oil ring groove. C) Through holes drilled in the piston pin recess. 450.K03 AMP In which of the following situations will the oil cooler automatic bypass valve be open the greatest amount? A) Engine oil above normal operating temperature. B) Engine oil below normal operating temperature. C) Engine stopped with no oil flowing after runup. 451.K03 AMP As an aid to cold weather starting, the oil dilution system thins the oil with A) kerosene. B) alcohol. C) gasoline. 452.K03 AMP The basic oil pressure relief valve setting for a newly overhauled engine is made A) within the first 30 seconds of engine operation. B) when the oil is at a higher than normal temperature to assure high oil pressure at normal oil temperature. C) in the overhaul shop. 453.K03 AMP Where is the oil temperature bulb located on a dry sump reciprocating engine? A) Oil inlet line. B) Oil cooler. C) Oil outlet line. 454.K03