Version: 013 2/21/2002 Bank: (General - Aviation Mechanic) Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank The FAA computer-assisted testing system is supported by a series of supplement publications. These publications, available through several aviation publishers, include the graphics, legends, and maps that are needed to successfully respond to certain test items. Please download the file Supplements.pdf at the Internet address of http://afs600.faa.gov/ for a complete list of the associated supplement books. Please Note: Subject matter codes appear above each item. 1. A01 AMG The working voltage of a capacitor in an ac circuit should be A. equal to the highest applied voltage. B. at least 20 percent greater than the highest applied voltage. C. at least 50 percent greater than the highest applied voltage. 2. A01 AMG The term that describes the combined resistive forces in an ac circuit is A. impedance. B. reactance. C. resistance. 3. A01 AMG The basis for transformer operation in the use of alternating current is mutual A. inductance. B. capacitance. C. reactance. 4. A01 AMG The opposition offered by a coil to the flow of alternating current is called (disregard resistance) A. reluctance. B. impedance. C. inductive reactance. 5. A01 AMG An increase in which of the following factors will cause an increase in the inductive reactance of a circuit? A. Resistance and capacitive reactance. B. Inductance and frequency. C. Resistance and voltage. 6. A01 AMG (Refer to figure 1.) When different rated capacitors are connected in series in a circuit, the total capacitance is A. equal to the sum of all the capacitances. B. less than the capacitance of the lowest rated capacitor. C. greater than the capacitance of the highest rated capacitor. 7. A01 AMG In an ac circuit, the effective voltage is A. less than the maximum instantaneous voltage. B. greater than the maximum instantaneous voltage. C. equal to the maximum instantaneous voltage. 8. A01 AMG The amount of electricity a capacitor can store is directly proportional to the A. plate area and inversely proportional to the distance between the plates. B. distance between the plates and inversely proportional to the plate area. C. plate area and is not affected by the distance between the plates. 9. A01 AMG (Refer to figure 2.) What is the total capacitance of a certain circuit containing three capacitors with capacitances of .02 microfarad, .05 microfarad, and .10 microfarad, respectively? A. 0.125 pF. B. .170 [mu]F. C. .0125 [mu]F. 10. A01 AMG Unless otherwise specified, any values given for current or voltage in an ac circuit are assumed to be A. instantaneous values. B. effective values. C. maximum values. 11. A01 AMG When inductors are connected in series in a circuit, the total inductance is (where the magnetic fields of each inductor do not affect the others) (Note: LT = L1 + L2 + L3 . . .) A. equal to the inductance of the highest rated inductor. B. less than the inductance of the lowest rated inductor. C. equal to the sum of the individual inductances. 12. A02 AMG Which requires the most electrical power during operation? (Note: 1 horsepower = 746 watts) A. Four 30-watt lamps in a 12-volt parallel circuit. B. Two lights requiring 3 amperes each in a 24-volt parallel system. C. A 12-volt motor requiring 8 amperes. 13. A02 AMG How many amperes will a 28-volt generator be required to supply to a circuit containing five lamps in parallel, three of which have a resistance of 6 ohms each and two of which have a resistance of 5 ohms each? A. 1 ampere. B. 25.23 amperes. C. 1.11 amperes. 14. A02 AMG The potential difference between two conductors which are insulated from each other is measured in A. amperes. B. volts. C. coulombs. 15. A02 AMG A 24-volt source is required to furnish 48 watts to a parallel circuit consisting of four resistors of equal value. What is the voltage drop across each resistor? A. 12 volts. B. 6 volts. C. 24 volts. 16. A02 AMG When calculating power in a reactive or inductive ac circuit, the true power is A. more than the apparent power. B. less than the apparent power. C. less than the apparent power in a reactive circuit and more than the apparent power in an inductive circuit. 17. A02 AMG (Refer to figure 4.) How much power is being furnished to the circuit? A. 2,875 watts. B. 2,645 watts. C. 575 watts. 18. A02 AMG (Refer to figure 5.) What is the impedance of an ac series circuit consisting of an inductor with a reactance of 10 ohms, a capacitor with a reactance of 4 ohms, and a resistor with a resistance of 8 ohms? A. 5.29 ohms. B. 10 ohms. C. 22 ohms. 19. A03 AMG (Refer to figure 6.) If resistor R5 is disconnected at the junction of R4 and R3 as shown, what will the ohmmeter read? A. 3 ohms. B. 12 ohms. C. 2.76 ohms. 20. A03 AMG (Refer to figure 7.) If resistor R3 is disconnected at terminal D, what will the ohmmeter read? A. 20 ohms. B. 10 ohms. C. Infinite resistance. 21. A03 AMG (Refer to figure 8.) With an ohmmeter connected into the circuit as shown, what will the ohmmeter read? A. 10 ohms. B. 20 ohms. C. Infinite resistance. 22. A03 AMG (Refer to figure 9.) How many instruments (voltmeters and ammeters) are installed correctly? A. One. B. Three. C. Two. 23. A03 AMG The correct way to connect a test voltmeter in a circuit is A. in parallel with a unit. B. in series with a unit. C. between the source voltage and the load. 24. A03 AMG Which term means .001 ampere? A. Milliampere. B. Microampere. C. Kiloampere. 25. A03 AMG A cabin entry light of 10 watts and a dome light of 20 watts are connected in parallel to a 30-volt source. If the voltage across the 10-watt light is measured, it will be A. half the voltage across the 20-watt light. B. one-third of the input voltage. C. equal to the voltage across the 20-watt light. 26. A03 AMG A 14-ohm resistor is to be installed in a series circuit carrying .05 ampere. How much power will the resistor be required to dissipate? A. At least 35 milliwatts. B. Less than .035 watt. C. At least .70 milliwatt. 27. A03 AMG .002KV equals A. 2.0 volts. B. 20 volts. C. .2 volt. 28. A03 AMG (Refer to figure 10.) What is the measured voltage of the series parallel circuit between terminals A and B? A. 1.5 volts. B. 4.5 volts. C. 3.0 volts. 29. A04 AMG A 24-volt source is required to furnish 48 watts to a parallel circuit consisting of two resistors of equal value. What is the value of each resistor? (Note: Rt = E2/P) A. 6 ohms. B. 24 ohms. C. 12 ohms. 30. A04 AMG Which requires the most electrical power? (Note: 1 horsepower = 746 watts) A. A 24-volt anticollision light circuit consisting of two light assemblies which require 3 amperes each during operation. B. A 1/5-horsepower, 24-volt motor which is 75 percent efficient. C. Four 30-watt lamps arranged in a 12-volt parallel circuit. 31. A04 AMG What unit is used to express electrical power? A. Ampere. B. Volt. C. Watt. 32. A04 AMG What is the operating resistance of a 30-watt light bulb designed for a 28-volt system? A. 0.93 ohm. B. 1.07 ohms. C. 26 ohms. 33. A04 AMG Which statement is correct when made in reference to a parallel circuit? A. The current in amperes can be found by dividing the EMF in volts by the sum of the resistors in ohms. B. The current is equal in all portions of the circuit. C. The total current is equal to the sum of the currents through the individual branches of the circuit. 34. A04 AMG Diodes are used in electrical power supply circuits primarily as A. switches. B. rectifiers. C. relays. 35. A04 AMG Transfer of electrical energy from one conductor to another without the aid of electrical connections A. is called induction. B. will cause excessive arcing and heat, and as a result is impractical. C. is called airgap transfer. 36. A04 AMG If three resistors of 3 ohms, 5 ohms, and 22 ohms are connected in series in a 28-volt circuit, how much current will flow through the 3-ohm resistor? A. 0.93 ampere. B. 9.3 amperes. C. 1.05 amperes. 37. A04 AMG A circuit has an applied voltage of 30 volts and a load consisting of a 10-ohm resistor in series with a 20-ohm resistor. What is the voltage drop across the 10-ohm resistor? A. 10 volts. B. 30 volts. C. 20 volts. 38. A04 AMG (Refer to figure 11.) Find the total current flowing in the wire between points C and D. A. 2.4 amperes. B. 3.0 amperes. C. 6.0 amperes. 39. A04 AMG (Refer to figure 11.) Find the voltage across the 8-ohm resistor. A. 20.4 volts. B. 8 volts. C. 24 volts. 40. A04 AMG (Refer to figure 12.) Find the total resistance of the circuit. A. 2.6 ohms. B. 16 ohms. C. 21.2 ohms. 41. A04 AMG Which is correct in reference to electrical resistance? A. An electrical device that has a high resistance will use more power than one with a low resistance with the same applied voltage. B. If one of three bulbs in a parallel lighting circuit is removed, the total resistance of the circuit will become greater. C. Two electrical devices will have the same combined resistance if they are connected in series as they will have if connected in parallel. 42. A04 AMG What happens to the current in a voltage step up transformer with a ratio of 1 to 4? A. The current is stepped up by a 1 to 4 ratio. B. The current does not change. C. The current is stepped down by a 1 to 4 ratio. 43. A04 AMG (Refer to figure 13.) Determine the total current flow in the circuit. A. 0.2 ampere. B. 0.8 ampere. C. 1.4 amperes. 44. A04 AMG (Refer to figure 14.) The total resistance of the circuit is A. 35 ohms. B. 25 ohms. C. 17 ohms. 45. A04 AMG Which of these will cause the resistance of a conductor to decrease? A. Decrease the length or the cross sectional area. B. Increase the length or decrease the cross sectional area. C. Decrease the length or increase the cross sectional area. 46. A04 AMG Through which material will magnetic lines of force pass the most readily? A. Copper. B. Aluminum. C. Iron. 47. A04 AMG A 48-volt source is required to furnish 192 watts to a parallel circuit consisting of three resistors of equal value. What is the value of each resistor? A. 12 ohms. B. 4 ohms. C. 36 ohms. 48. A04 AMG Which is correct concerning a parallel circuit? A. Total resistance will be smaller than the smallest resistor. B. Total voltage drop is the same as the total resistance. C. Total resistance will decrease when one of the resistances is removed. 49. A04 AMG The voltage drop in a circuit of known resistance is dependent on A. the amperage of the circuit. B. only the resistance of the conductor, and does not change with a change in either voltage or amperage. C. the voltage of the circuit. 50. A05 AMG A thermal switch, as used in an electric motor, is designed to A. reroute the circuit to ground. B. close the integral fan circuit to allow cooling of the motor. C. open the circuit in order to allow cooling of the motor. 51. A05 AMG (Refer to figure 15.) With the landing gear retracted, the red indicator light will not come on if an open occurs in wire A. No. 17. B. No. 19. C. No. 7. 52. A05 AMG (Refer to figure 15.) The No. 7 wire is used to A. open the UP indicator light circuit when the landing gear is retracted. B. complete the PUSH TO TEST circuit. C. close the UP indicator light circuit when the landing gear is retracted. 53. A05 AMG (Refer to figure 15.) When the landing gear is down, the green light will not come on if an open occurs in wire A. No. 17. B. No. 7. C. No. 6. 54. A05 AMG (Refer to figure 16.) What will be the effect if the PCO relay fails to operate when the left hand tank is selected? A. The fuel pressure crossfeed valve will not open. B. The fuel pressure crossfeed valve open light will not illuminate. C. The fuel tank crossfeed valve open light will illuminate. 55. A05 AMG (Refer to figure 16.) The TCO relay will operate if 24 volts dc is applied to the bus and the fuel tank selector is in the A. crossfeed position. B. left hand tank position. C. right hand tank position. 56. A05 AMG (Refer to figure 16.) With power to the bus and the fuel selector switched to the right hand tank, how many relays in the system are operating? A. Two. B. Four. C. Three. 57. A05 AMG (Refer to figure 16.) When electrical power is applied to the bus, which relays are energized? A. TCC and TCO. B. PCC and TCC. C. PCO and PCC. 58. A05 AMG (Refer to figure 16.) Energize the circuit with the fuel tank selector switch selected to the left hand position. Using the schematic, identify the switches that will change position. A. 3, 5, 6, 7, 11, 13. B. 5, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 15. C. 5, 6, 11, 12, 13, 15, 16. 59. A05 AMG (Refer to figure 17.) Which of the components is a potentiometer? A. 3. B. 11. C. 5. 60. A05 AMG (Refer to figure 17.) The electrical symbol represented at number 5 is a variable A. capacitor. B. resistor. C. inductor. 61. A05 AMG (Refer to figure 18.) When the landing gears are up and the throttles are retarded, the warning horn will not sound if an open occurs in wire A. No. 4. B. No. 2. C. No. 9. 62. A05 AMG (Refer to figure 18.) The control valve switch must be placed in the neutral position when the landing gears are down to A. prevent the warning horn from sounding when the throttles are closed. B. remove the ground from the green light. C. permit the test circuit to operate. 63. A05 AMG (Refer to figure 19.) Under which condition will a ground be provided for the warning horn through both gear switches when the throttles are closed? A. Left gear up and right gear down. B. Both gears up and the control valve out of neutral. C. Right gear up and left gear down. 64. A05 AMG (Refer to figure 19.) When the throttles are retarded with only the right gear down, the warning horn will not sound if an open occurs in wire A. No. 5. B. No. 13. C. No. 6. 65. A05 AMG (Refer to figure 19.) When the landing gears are up and the throttles are retarded, the warning horn will not sound if an open occurs in wire A. No. 6. B. No. 5. C. No. 7. 66. A05 AMG When referring to an electrical circuit diagram, what point is considered to be at zero voltage? A. The switch. B. The ground reference. C. The circuit breaker. 67. A05 AMG (Refer to figure 20.) Troubleshooting an open circuit with a voltmeter as shown in this circuit will A. create a low resistance path and the current flow will be greater than normal. B. permit current to flow and illuminate the lamp. C. permit the battery voltage to appear on the voltmeter. 68. A05 AMG (Refer to figure 21.) Which symbol represents a variable resistor? A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. 69. A05 AMG In a P-N-P transistor application, the solid state device is turned on when the A. emitter is negative with respect to the base. B. base is positive with respect to the emitter. C. base is negative with respect to the emitter. 70. A05 AMG In an N-P-N transistor application, the solid state device is turned on when the A. emitter is positive with respect to the base. B. base is positive with respect to the emitter. C. base is negative with respect to the emitter. 71. A05 AMG Typical application for zener diodes is as A. voltage regulators. B. half-wave rectifiers. C. full-wave rectifiers. 72. A05 AMG (Refer to figure 22.) Which illustration is correct concerning bias application and current flow? A. 1. B. 3. C. 2. 73. A05 AMG Forward biasing of a solid state device will cause the device to A. conduct via zener breakdown. B. turn off. C. conduct. 74. A05 AMG (Refer to figure 23.) If an open occurs at R1, the light A. cannot be turned on. B. cannot be turned off. C. will not be affected. 75. A05 AMG (Refer to figure 23.) If R2 sticks in the up position, the light will A. be on full bright. B. be very dim. C. not illuminate. 76. A05 AMG (Refer to figure 24.) Which statement concerning the depicted logic gate is true? A. Any input being 1 will produce a 0 output. B. All inputs must be 1 to produce a 1 output. C. Any input being 1 will produce a 1 output. 77. A05 AMG (Refer to figure 25.) In a functional and operating circuit, the depicted logic gate's output will be 0 A. only when all inputs are 0. B. when one or more inputs are 0. C. when all inputs are 1. 78. A05 AMG (Refer to figure 26.) Which of the logic gate output conditions is correct with respect to the given inputs? A. 3. B. 2. C. 1. 79. A06 AMG A lead acid battery with 12 cells connected in series (no load voltage = 2.1 volts per cell) furnishes 10 amperes to a load of 2 ohms resistance. The internal resistance of the battery in this instance is A. 2.52 ohms. B. 5.0 ohms. C. 0.52 ohm. 80. A06 AMG If electrolyte from a lead-acid battery is spilled in the battery compartment, which procedure should be followed? A. Rinse the affected area thoroughly with clean water. B. Apply sodium bicarbonate solution to the affected area followed by a water rinse. C. Apply boric acid solution to the affected area followed by a water rinse. 81. A06 AMG Which statement regarding the hydrometer reading of a lead acid storage battery electrolyte is true? A. A specific gravity correction should be added to the hydrometer reading if the electrolyte temperature is below 59 °F. B. The hydrometer reading does not require a temperature correction if the electrolyte temperature is 80 °F. C. The hydrometer reading will give a true indication of the capacity of the battery regardless of the electrolyte temperature. 82. A06 AMG A fully charged lead acid battery will not freeze until extremely low temperatures are reached because A. most of the acid is in the solution. B. increased internal resistance generates sufficient heat to prevent freezing. C. the acid is in the plates, thereby increasing the specific gravity of the solution. 83. A06 AMG What determines the amount of current which will flow through a battery while it is being charged by a constant voltage source? A. The state of charge of the battery. B. The total plate area of the battery. C. The ampere hour capacity of the battery. 84. A06 AMG Which of the following statements is/are generally true regarding the charging of several aircraft batteries together? 1. Batteries of different voltages (but similar capacities) can be connected in series with each other across the charger, and charged using the constant current method. 2. Batteries of different ampere-hour capacity and same voltage can be connected in parallel with each other across the charger, and charged using the constant voltage method. 3. Batteries of the same voltage and same ampere-hour capacity must be connected in series with each other across the charger, and charged using the constant current method. A. 3. B. 2 and 3. C. 1 and 2. 85. A06 AMG The method used to rapidly charge a nickel cadmium battery utilizes A. constant current and constant voltage. B. constant current and varying voltage. C. constant voltage and varying current. 86. A06 AMG The purpose of providing a space underneath the plates in a lead acid battery's cell container is to A. prevent sediment buildup from contacting the plates and causing a short circuit. B. ensure that the electrolyte quantity ratio to the number of plates and plate area is adequate. C. allow for convection flow of the electrolyte in order to provide for cooling of the plates. 87. A06 AMG Which condition is an indication of improperly torqued cell link connections of a nickel cadmium battery? A. Light spewing at the cell caps. B. Heat or burn marks on the hardware. C. Toxic and corrosive deposits of potassium carbonate crystals. 88. A06 AMG The presence of any small amount of potassium carbonate deposits on the top of nickel-cadmium battery cells in service is an indication of A. plate sulfation. B. excessive gassing. C. normal operation. 89. A06 AMG The servicing and charging of nickel-cadmium and lead acid batteries together in the same service area is likely to result in A. increased explosion and/or fire hazard. B. contamination of both types of batteries. C. normal battery service life. 90. A06 AMG The electrolyte of a nickel cadmium battery is the lowest when the battery is A. being charged. B. in a discharged condition. C. under a heavy load condition. 91. A06 AMG The end of charge voltage of a 19 cell nickel cadmium battery, measured while still on charge, A. must be 1.4 volts per cell. B. must be 1.2 to 1.3 volts per cell. C. depends upon its temperature and the method used for charging. 92. A06 AMG Nickel-cadmium batteries which are stored for a long period of time will show a low liquid level because A. electrolyte becomes absorbed into the plates. B. of current leakage from individual cells. C. electrolyte evaporates through the vents. 93. A06 AMG How can the state of charge of a nickel cadmium battery be determined? A. By measuring the specific gravity of the electrolyte. B. By the level of the electrolyte. C. By a measured discharge. 94. A06 AMG What may result if water is added to a nickel cadmium battery when it is not fully charged? A. Excessive electrolyte dilution. B. No adverse effects since water may be added anytime. C. Excessive spewing is likely to occur during the charging cycle. 95. A06 AMG In nickel cadmium batteries, a rise in cell temperature A. causes a decrease in internal resistance. B. increases cell voltage. C. causes an increase in internal resistance. 96. A06 AMG When a charging current is applied to a nickel cadmium battery, the cells emit gas only A. toward the end of the charging cycle. B. when the electrolyte level is low. C. if they are defective. 97. B01 AMG What type of line is normally used in a mechanical drawing or blueprint to represent an edge or object not visible to the viewer? A. Alternate short and long light dashes. B. Medium solid line. C. Medium weight dashed line. 98. B01 AMG (Refer to figure 27.) In the isometric view of a typical aileron balance weight, identify the view indicated by the arrow. A. 1. B. 3. C. 2. 99. B01 AMG (1) A detail drawing is a description of a single part. (2) An assembly drawing is a description of an object made up of two or more parts. Regarding the above statements, A. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. B. only No. 1 is true. C. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. 100. B01 AMG (Refer to figure 28.) Identify the bottom view of the object shown. A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. 101. B01 AMG A specific measured distance from the datum or some other point identified by the manufacturer, to a point in or on the aircraft is called a A. zone number. B. station number. C. reference number. 102. B01 AMG Which statement is true regarding an orthographic projection? A. It could have as many as eight views. B. There are always at least two views. C. One view, two view, and three view drawings are the most common. 103. B01 AMG (Refer to figure 29.) Identify the left side view of the object shown. A. 2. B. 3. C. 1. 104. B01 AMG A line used to show an edge which is not visible is a A. phantom line. B. hidden line. C. break line. 105. B01 AMG (Refer to figure 30.) Identify the bottom view of the object. A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. 106. B01 AMG (1) Schematic diagrams indicate the location of individual components in the aircraft. (2) Schematic diagrams indicate the location of components with respect to each other within the system. Regarding the above statements, A. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. B. only No. 1 is true. C. only No. 2 is true. 107. B02 AMG (Refer to figure 31.) What are the proper procedural steps for sketching repairs and alterations? A. 1, 3, 4, 2. B. 4, 2, 3, 1. C. 3, 1, 4, 2. 108. B02 AMG Which statement is applicable when using a sketch for making a part? A. The sketch may be used only if supplemented with three view orthographic projection drawings. B. The sketch need not show all necessary construction details. C. The sketch must show all information to manufacture the part. 109. B02 AMG (Refer to figure 32.) What is the next step required for a working sketch of the illustration? A. Darken the object outlines. B. Sketch extension and dimension lines. C. Add notes, dimensions, title, and date. 110. B02 AMG For sketching purposes, almost all objects are composed of one or some combination of six basic shapes; these include the A. triangle, circle, cube, cylinder, cone, and sphere. B. angle, arc, line, plane, square, and circle. C. triangle, plane, arc, line, square, and polygon. 111. B02 AMG What should be the first step of the procedure in sketching an aircraft wing skin repair? A. Block in the views. B. Lay out the repair. C. Draw heavy guidelines. 112. B02 AMG (1) According to 14 CFR Part 91, repairs to an aircraft skin should have a detailed dimensional sketch included in the permanent records. (2) On occasion, a mechanic may need to make a simple sketch of a proposed repair to an aircraft, a new design, or a modification. Regarding the above statements, A. only No. 2 is true. B. only No. 1 is true. C. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. 113. B02 AMG Working drawings may be divided into three classes. They are: A. detail drawings, assembly drawings, and installation drawings. B. detail drawings, orthographic projection drawings, and pictorial drawings. C. title drawings, installation drawings, and assembly drawings. 114. B02 AMG Sketches are usually made easier by the use of A. plain white paper. B. artist's paper. C. graph paper. 115. B02 AMG What material symbol is frequently used in drawings to represent all metals? A. Steel. B. Cast iron. C. Aluminum. 116. B02 AMG (Refer to figure 33.) Which material section line symbol indicates cast iron? A. 2. B. 1. C. 3. 117. B03 AMG (Refer to figure 34.) What is the dimension of the chamfer? A. 0.3125 +.005 -0. B. 1/16 X 37°. C. 0.0625 X 45°. 118. B03 AMG (Refer to figure 34.) What is the maximum diameter of the hole for the clevis pin? A. 0.3130. B. 0.3175. C. 0.31255. 119. B03 AMG (Refer to figure 34.) What would be the minimum diameter of 4130 round stock required for the construction of the clevis that would produce a machined surface? A. 1 inch. B. 7/8 inch. C. 55/64 inch. 120. B03 AMG (Refer to figure 34.) Using the information, what size drill would be required to drill the clevis bolthole? A. 5/16 inch. B. 21/64 inch. C. 1/2 inch. 121. B03 AMG The measurements showing the ideal or "perfect" sizes of parts on drawings are called A. dimensions. B. tolerances. C. allowances. 122. B03 AMG (Refer to figure 35.) Identify the extension line. A. 1. B. 4. C. 3. 123. B03 AMG (Refer to figure 36.) The diameter of the holes in the finished object is A. 31/64 inch. B. 3/4 inch. C. 1/2 inch. 124. B03 AMG Zone numbers on aircraft blueprints are used to A. locate parts, sections, and views on large drawings. B. indicate different sections of the aircraft. C. locate parts in the aircraft. 125. B03 AMG One purpose for schematic diagrams is to show the A. functional location of components within a system. B. physical location of components within a system. C. size and shape of components within a system. 126. B03 AMG When reading a blueprint, a dimension is given as 4.387 inches +.005 -.002. Which statement is true? A. The minimum acceptable size is 4.382 inches. B. The minimum acceptable size is 4.385 inches. C. The maximum acceptable size is 4.390 inches. 127. B03 AMG What is the allowable manufacturing tolerance for a bushing where the outside dimensions shown on the blueprint are: 1.0625 + .0025 - .0003? A. 1.0650. B. 1.0647. C. .0028. 128. B03 AMG A hydraulic system schematic drawing typically indicates the A. direction of fluid flow through the system. B. specific location of the individual components within the aircraft. C. amount of pressure in the pressure and return lines, and in system components. 129. B03 AMG (Refer to figure 37.) The vertical distance between the top of the plate and the bottom of the lowest 15/64-inch hole is A. 2.242. B. 2.367. C. 2.250. 130. B03 AMG (1) A measurement should not be scaled from an aircraft print because the paper shrinks or stretches when the print is made. (2) When a detail drawing is made, it is carefully and accurately drawn to scale, and is dimensioned. Regarding the above statements, A. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. B. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. C. only No. 2 is true. 131. B03 AMG The drawings often used in illustrated parts manuals are A. block drawings. B. detail drawings. C. exploded view drawings. 132. B03 AMG A drawing in which the subassemblies or parts are shown as brought together on the aircraft is called A. a sectional drawing. B. an installation drawing. C. a detail drawing. 133. B03 AMG What type of diagram shows the wire size required for a particular installation? A. A wiring diagram. B. A schematic diagram. C. A block diagram. 134. B03 AMG Schematic diagrams are best suited for which of the following? A. Troubleshooting system malfunctions. B. Showing the visual details of individual components in a system. C. Showing the overall location and appearance of components in a system. 135. B03 AMG In the reading of aircraft blueprints, the term "tolerance", used in association with aircraft parts or components, A. represents the limit of galvanic compatibility between different adjoining material types in aircraft parts. B. is the difference between extreme permissible dimensions that a part may have and still be acceptable. C. is the tightest permissible fit for proper construction and operation of mating parts. 136. B04 AMG (Refer to figure 38.) An aircraft reciprocating engine has a 1,830 cubic-inch displacement and develops 1,250 brake-horsepower at 2,500 RPM. What is the brake mean effective pressure? A. 217. B. 205. C. 225. 137. B04 AMG (Refer to figure 38.) An aircraft reciprocating engine has a 2,800 cubic-inch displacement, develops 2,000 brake-horsepower, and indicates 270 brake-mean effective pressure. What is the engine speed (RPM)? A. 2,100. B. 2,200. C. 2,300. 138. B04 AMG (Refer to figure 38.) An aircraft reciprocating engine has a 2,800 cubic-inch displacement and develops 2,000 brake-horsepower at 2,200 RPM. What is the brake mean effective pressure? A. 242.5. B. 257.5. C. 275.0. 139. B04 AMG (Refer to figure 39.) Determine the cable size of a 40-foot length of single cable in free air, with a continuous rating, running from a bus to the equipment in a 28-volt system with a 15-ampere load and a 1-volt drop. A. No. 10. B. No. 11. C. No. 18. 140. B04 AMG (Refer to figure 39.) Determine the maximum length of a No. 16 cable to be installed from a bus to the equipment in a 28-volt system with a 25-ampere intermittent load and a 1-volt drop. A. 10 feet. B. 8 feet. C. 12 feet. 141. B04 AMG (Refer to figure 39.) Determine the minimum wire size of a single cable in a bundle carrying a continuous current of 20 amperes 10 feet from the bus to the equipment in a 28-volt system with an allowable 1-volt drop. A. No. 12. B. No. 14. C. No. 16. 142. B04 AMG (Refer to figure 39.) Determine the maximum length of a No. 12 single cable that can be used between a 28-volt bus and a component utilizing 20 amperes continuous load in free air with a maximum acceptable 1-volt drop. A. 22.5 feet. B. 12.5 feet. C. 26.5 feet. 143. B04 AMG (Refer to figure 40.) Determine the proper tension for a 1/8-inch cable (7 x 19) if the temperature is 80 °F. A. 75 pounds. B. 80 pounds. C. 70 pounds. 144. B04 AMG (Refer to figure 40.) Determine the proper tension for a 3/16-inch cable (7 x 19 extra flex) if the temperature is 87 °F. A. 135 pounds. B. 125 pounds. C. 140 pounds. 145. B04 AMG (Refer to figure 41.) Determine how much fuel would be required for a 30-minute reserve operating at 2,300 RPM. A. 25.3 pounds. B. 35.5 pounds. C. 49.8 pounds. 146. B04 AMG (Refer to figure 41.) Determine the fuel consumption with the engine operating at cruise, 2,350 RPM. A. 51.2 pounds per hour. B. 49.2 pounds per hour. C. 55.3 pounds per hour. 147. C01 AMG When computing weight and balance, an airplane is considered to be in balance when A. all moment arms of the plane fall within CG range. B. the movement of the passengers will not cause the moment arms to fall outside the CG range. C. the average moment arm of the loaded airplane falls within its CG range. 148. C01 AMG What tasks are completed prior to weighing an aircraft to determine its empty weight? A. Remove all items on the aircraft equipment list; drain fuel, compute oil and hydraulic fluid weight. B. Remove all items except those on the aircraft equipment list; drain fuel and fill hydraulic reservoir. C. Remove all items except those on the aircraft equipment list; drain fuel and hydraulic fluid. 149. C01 AMG The useful load of an aircraft consists of the A. crew, usable fuel, oil, and fixed equipment. B. crew, passengers, usable fuel, oil, cargo, and fixed equipment. C. crew, usable fuel, passengers, and cargo. 150. C01 AMG Which of the following can provide the empty weight of an aircraft if the aircraft's weight and balance records become lost, destroyed, or otherwise inaccurate? A. The applicable Aircraft Specification or Type Certificate Data Sheet. B. The applicable flight manual or pilot's operating handbook. C. Reweighing the aircraft. 151. C01 AMG In the theory of weight and balance, what is the name of the distance from the fulcrum to an object? A. Lever arm. B. Fulcrum arm. C. Balance arm. 152. C01 AMG (1) Private aircraft are required by regulations to be weighed periodically. (2) Private aircraft are required to be weighed after making any alteration. Regarding the above statements, A. only No. 1 is true. B. only No. 2 is true. C. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. 153. C01 AMG What FAA-approved document gives the leveling means to be used when weighing an aircraft? A. Manufacturer's maintenance manual. B. Type Certificate Data Sheet. C. AC 43.13-1B. 154. C01 AMG To obtain useful weight data for purposes of determining the CG, it is necessary that an aircraft be weighed A. with no more than minimum fuel (1/12 gallon per METO horsepower) in all fuel tanks. B. with all items of useful load installed. C. in a level flight attitude. 155. C01 AMG What type of measurement is used to designate the arm in weight and balance computation? A. Weight x distance. B. Weight. C. Distance. 156. C01 AMG What determines whether the value of the moment is preceded by a plus (+) or a minus (-) sign in aircraft weight and balance? A. The result of a weight being added or removed and its location relative to the datum. B. The location of the datum in reference to the aircraft CG. C. The location of the weight in reference to the datum. 157. C01 AMG The maximum weight of an aircraft is the A. empty weight plus useful load. B. empty weight plus crew, passengers, and fixed equipment. C. empty weight plus crew, maximum fuel, cargo, and baggage. 158. C01 AMG Which statement is true regarding helicopter weight and balance? A. Weight and balance procedures for airplanes generally also apply to helicopters. B. Regardless of internal or external loading, lateral axis cg control is ordinarily not a factor in maintaining helicopter weight and balance. C. The moment of tail-mounted components is subject to constant change. 159. C01 AMG What should be clearly indicated on the aircraft weighing form? A. Weighing points. B. Minimum allowable gross weight. C. Weight of unusable fuel. 160. C01 AMG If the reference datum line is placed at the nose of an airplane rather than at the firewall or some other location aft of the nose, A. measurement arms can be either positive or negative numbers depending on the manufacturer's preference. B. all measurement arms will be in positive numbers. C. all measurement arms will be in negative numbers. 161. C01 AMG Zero fuel weight is the A. basic operating weight without crew, fuel, and cargo. B. maximum permissible weight of a loaded aircraft (passengers, crew, and cargo) without fuel. C. dry weight plus the weight of full crew, passengers, and cargo. 162. C01 AMG The empty weight of an airplane is determined by A. subtracting the tare weight from the scale reading and adding the weight of each weighing point. B. adding the net weight of each weighing point and multiplying the measured distance to the datum. C. multiplying the measured distance from each weighing point to the datum times the sum of scale reading less the tare weight. 163. C01 AMG When dealing with weight and balance of an aircraft, the term ''maximum weight'' is interpreted to mean the maximum A. authorized weight of the aircraft and its contents. B. weight of the useful load. C. weight of the empty aircraft. 164. C02 AMG The useful load of an aircraft is the A. sum of the empty weight and the maximum gross weight. B. difference between the net weight and total weight. C. difference between the maximum gross weight and empty weight. 165. C02 AMG When determining the empty weight of an aircraft, certificated under current airworthiness standards (14 CFR Part 23), the oil contained in the supply tank is considered A. the same as the fluid contained in the water injection reservoir. B. a part of the useful load. C. a part of the empty weight. 166. C02 AMG Improper loading of a helicopter which results in exceeding either the fore or aft CG limits is hazardous due to the A. reduction or loss of effective cyclic pitch control. B. reduction or loss of effective collective pitch control. C. Coriolis effect being translated to the fuselage. 167. C02 AMG The maximum weight as used in weight and balance control of a given aircraft can normally be found A. by adding the weight of full fuel, pilot, passengers, and maximum allowable baggage to the empty weight. B. in the Aircraft Specification or Type Certificate Data Sheet. C. by adding the empty weight and payload. 168. C02 AMG An aircraft with an empty weight of 2,100 pounds and an empty weight CG +32.5 was altered as follows: 1. two 18-pound passenger seats located at +73 were removed; 2. structural modifications were made at +77 increasing weight by 17 pounds; 3. a seat and safety belt weighing 25 pounds were installed at +74.5; and 4. radio equipment weighing 35 pounds was installed at +95. What is the new empty weight CG? A. +34.65. B. +33.68. C. +34.01. 169. C02 AMG The CG range in single rotor helicopters is A. much greater than for airplanes. B. more restricted than for airplanes. C. approximately the same as the CG range for airplanes. 170. C02 AMG The amount of fuel used for computing empty weight and corresponding CG is A. the amount of fuel necessary for 1/2 hour of operation. B. unusable fuel. C. empty fuel tanks. 171. C02 AMG An aircraft as loaded weighs 4,954 pounds at a CG of +30.5 inches. The CG range is +32.0 inches to +42.1 inches. Find the minimum weight of the ballast necessary to bring the CG within the CG range. The ballast arm is +162 inches. A. 30.58 pounds. B. 57.16 pounds. C. 61.98 pounds. 172. C02 AMG As weighed, the total empty weight of an aircraft is 5,862 pounds with a moment of 885,957. However, when the aircraft was weighed, 20 pounds of potable water were on board at +84, and 23 pounds of hydraulic fluid were in a tank located at +101. What is the empty weight CG of the aircraft? A. 151.700. B. 151.365. C. 150.700. 173. C02 AMG Two boxes which weigh 10 pounds and 5 pounds are placed in an airplane so that their distance aft from the CG are 4 feet and 2 feet respectively. How far forward of the CG should a third box, weighing 20 pounds, be placed so that the CG will not be changed? A. 3 feet. B. 8 feet. C. 2.5 feet. 174. C02 AMG An aircraft with an empty weight of 1,800 pounds and an empty weight CG of +31.5 was altered as follows: 1. two 15-pound passenger seats located at +72 were removed; 2. structural modifications increasing the weight 14 pounds were made at +76; 3. a seat and safety belt weighing 20 pounds were installed at +73.5; and 4. radio equipment weighing 30 pounds was installed at +30. What is the new empty weight CG? A. +32.69. B. +30.61. C. +31.61. 175. C02 AMG An aircraft had an empty weight of 2,886 pounds with a moment of 101,673.78 before several alterations were made. The alterations included: 1. removing two passenger seats (15 pounds each) at +71; 2. installing a cabinet (97 pounds) at +71; 3. installing a seat and safety belt (20 pounds) at +71; and 4. installing radio equipment (30 pounds) at +94. The alterations caused the new empty weight CG to move A. 2.03 inches aft of the original empty weight CG. B. 2.03 inches forward of the original empty weight CG. C. 1.62 inches aft of the original empty weight CG. 176. C02 AMG If a 40-pound generator applies +1400-inch pounds to a reference axis, the generator is located A. +25 from the axis. B. +35 from the axis. C. -35 from the axis. 177. C02 AMG In a balance computation of an aircraft from which an item located aft of the datum was removed, use A. (-)weight X (-)arm (+)moment. B. (+)weight X (-)arm (-)moment. C. (-)weight X (+)arm (-)moment. 178. C02 AMG Datum is forward of the main gear center point 30.24 inches Actual distance between tail gear and main gear center points 360.26 inches Net weight at right main gear 9,980 pounds Net weight at left main gear 9,770 pounds Net weight at tail gear 1,970 pounds These items were in the aircraft when weighed: 1. Lavatory water tank full (34 pounds at +352). 2. Hydraulic fluid (22 pounds at -8). 3. Removable ballast (146 pounds at +380). What is the empty weight CG of the aircraft described above? A. 58.54 inches. B. 60.31 inches. C. 62.92 inches. 179. C02 AMG When making a rearward weight and balance check to determine that the CG will not exceed the rearward limit during extreme conditions, the items of useful load which should be computed at their minimum weights are those located forward of the A. datum. B. forward CG limit. C. rearward CG limit. 180. C02 AMG When an empty aircraft is weighed, the combined net weight at the main gears is 3,540 pounds with an arm of 195.5 inches. At the nose gear, the net weight is 2,322 pounds with an arm of 83.5 inches. The datum line is forward of the nose of the aircraft. What is the empty CG of the aircraft? A. 151.1. B. 146.5. C. 155.2. 181. C02 AMG An aircraft with an empty weight of 1,500 pounds and an empty weight CG of +28.4 was altered as follows: 1. two 12-pound seats located at +68.5 were removed; 2. structural modifications weighing +28 pounds were made at +73; 3. a seat and safety belt weighing 30 pounds were installed at +70.5; and 4. radio equipment weighing 25 pounds was installed at +85. What is the new empty weight CG? A. +30.30. B. +23.51. C. +31.35. 182. C02 AMG The following alteration was performed on an aircraft: A model B engine weighing 175 pounds was replaced by a model D engine weighing 185 pounds at a -62.00 inch station. The aircraft weight and balance records show the previous empty weight to be 998 pounds and an empty weight CG of 13.48 inches. What is the new empty weight CG? A. 14.25 inches. B. 12.73 inches. C. 13.96 inches. 183. C02 AMG If the empty weight CG of an airplane lies within the empty weight CG limits, A. it is not necessary to calculate CG extremes. B. it is necessary to calculate CG extremes. C. minimum fuel should be used in both forward and rearward CG checks. 184. C02 AMG When computing the maximum forward loaded CG of an aircraft, minimum weights, arms, and moments should be used for items of useful load that are located aft of the A. forward CG limit. B. rearward CG limit. C. datum. 185. C02 AMG Find the empty weight CG location for the following tricycle gear aircraft. Each main wheel weighs 753 pounds, nosewheel weighs 22 pounds, distance between nosewheel and main wheels is 87.5 inches, nosewheel location is +9.875 inches from datum, with 1 gallon of hydraulic fluid at -21.0 inches included in the weight scale. A. +95.61 inches. B. +97.375 inches. C. +96.11 inches. 186. D01 AMG Which coupling nut should be selected for use with 1/2-inch aluminum oil lines which are to be assembled using flared tube ends and standard AN nuts, sleeves, and fittings? A. AN-818-16. B. AN-818-5. C. AN-818-8. 187. D01 AMG Metal tubing fluid lines are sized by wall thickness and A. inside diameter in 1/16 inch increments. B. outside diameter in 1/16 inch increments. C. outside diameter in 1/32 inch increments. 188. D01 AMG From the following sequences of steps, indicate the proper order you would use to make a single flare on a piece of tubing: 1. Place the tube in the proper size hole in the flaring block. 2. Project the end of the tube slightly from the top of the flaring tool, about the thickness of a dime. 3. Slip the fitting nut and sleeve on the tube. 4. Strike the plunger several light blows with a lightweight hammer or mallet and turn the plunger one half turn after each blow. 5. Tighten the clamp bar securely to prevent slippage. 6. Center the plunger or flaring pin over the tube. A. 1, 3, 5, 2, 4, 6. B. 3, 1, 2, 6, 5, 4. C. 3, 1, 6, 2, 5, 4. 189. D01 AMG Hydraulic tubing, which is damaged in a localized area to such an extent that repair is necessary, may be repaired A. by cutting out the damaged area and utilizing a swaged tube fitting to join the tube ends. B. by cutting out the damaged section and soldering in a replacement section of tubing. C. only by replacing the entire tubing using the same size and material as the original. 190. D01 AMG What is an advantage of a double flare on aluminum tubing? A. It is less resistant to the shearing effect of torque. B. Ease of construction. C. It is more resistant to the shearing effect of torque. 191. D01 AMG A certain amount of slack must be left in a flexible hose during installation because, when under pressure, it A. contracts in length and expands in diameter. B. expands in length and contracts in diameter. C. expands in length and diameter. 192. D01 AMG The term ``cold flow'' is generally associated with A. welding and sheet metal. B. vaporizing fuel. C. rubber hose. 193. D01 AMG What is the color of an AN steel flared tube fitting? A. Black. B. Blue. C. Red. 194. D01 AMG Select the correct statement in reference to flare fittings. A. AC and AN fittings are identical except for material composition and identifying colors. B. AC fittings are generally replacing the older AN fittings. C. AN fittings can easily be identified by the shoulder between the end of the threads and the flare cone. 195. D01 AMG Flexible lines must be installed with A. a slack of at least 10 to 12 percent of the length. B. a slack of 5 to 8 percent of the length. C. enough slack to allow maximum flexing during operation. 196. D01 AMG The maximum distance between end fittings to which a straight hose assembly is to be connected is 50 inches. The minimum hose length to make such a connection should be A. 54-1/2 inches. B. 52-1/2 inches. C. 51-1/2 inches. 197. D01 AMG Excessive stress on fluid or pneumatic metal tubing caused by expansion and contraction due to temperature changes can best be avoided by A. not subjecting the aircraft to sudden changes in temperature. B. providing bends in the tubing. C. using short, straight sections of tubing between fixed parts of the aircraft. 198. D01 AMG The material specifications for a certain aircraft require that a replacement oil line be fabricated from 3/4-inch 0.072 5052-0 aluminum alloy tubing. What is the inside dimension of this tubing? A. 0.750 inch. B. 0.688 inch. C. 0.606 inch. 199. D01 AMG In most aircraft hydraulic systems, two piece tube connectors consisting of a sleeve and a nut are used when a tubing flare is required. The use of this type connector eliminates A. the possibility of reducing the flare thickness by wiping or ironing during the tightening process. B. wrench damage to the tubing during the tightening process. C. the flaring operation prior to assembly. 200. D01 AMG Which statement about Military Standard (MS) flareless fittings is correct? A. During installation, MS flareless fittings are normally tightened by turning the nut a specified amount after the sleeve and fitting sealing surface have made contact, rather than being torqued. B. MS flareless fittings should not be lubricated prior to assembly. C. MS flareless fittings must be tightened to a specific torque. 201. D01 AMG When flaring aluminum tubing for use with AN fittings, the flare angle must be A. 35°. B. 45°. C. 37°. 202. D01 AMG Scratches or nicks on the straight portion of aluminum alloy tubing may be repaired if they are no deeper than A. 10 percent of the wall thickness. B. 1/32 inch or 20 percent of wall thickness, whichever is less. C. 20 percent of the wall thickness. 203. D01 AMG Flexible hose used in aircraft systems is classified in size according to the A. outside diameter. B. inside diameter. C. wall thickness. 204. D01 AMG A scratch or nick in aluminum alloy tubing can be repaired by burnishing provided the scratch or nick does not A. exceed 10 percent of the tube diameter. B. exceed 20 percent of the wall thickness of the tube. C. appear in the heel of a bend in the tube. 205. D01 AMG Which of the following hose materials are compatible with phosphate-ester base hydraulic fluids? 1. Butyl. 2. Teflon. 3. Buna-N. 4. Neoprene. A. 2 and 4. B. 1 and 3. C. 1 and 2. 206. D01 AMG Which tubings have the characteristics (high strength, abrasion resistance) necessary for use in a high pressure (3,000 PSI) hydraulic system for operation of landing gear and flaps? A. Corrosion resistant steel annealed or 1/4H. B. 1100-1/2H or 3003-1/2H aluminum alloy. C. 2024-T or 5052-0 aluminum alloy. 207. D01 AMG When installing bonded clamps to support metal tubing, A. paint removal from tube is not recommended as it will inhibit corrosion. B. paint clamp and tube after clamp installation to prevent corrosion. C. remove paint or anodizing from tube at clamp location. 208. D01 AMG In a metal tubing installation, A. rigid straight line runs are preferable. B. a tube may be pulled in line if the nut will start on the threaded coupling. C. tension is undesirable because pressurization will cause it to expand and shift. 209. D01 AMG A gas or fluid line marked with the letters PHDAN A. is a high pressure line. The letters mean Pressure High, Discharge at Nacelle. B. is carrying a substance that cannot be made non-toxic. C. is carrying a substance which may be dangerous to personnel. 210. D01 AMG Which statement concerning Bernoulli's principle is true? A. The pressure of a fluid decreases at points where the velocity of the fluid increases. B. The pressure of a fluid increases at points where the velocity of the fluid increases. C. It applies only to gases and vaporized liquids. 211. D01 AMG (1) Bonded clamps are used for support when installing metal tubing. (2) Unbonded clamps are used for support when installing wiring. Regarding the above statements, A. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. B. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. C. only No. 1 is true. 212. D01 AMG A 3/8 inch aircraft high pressure flexible hose as compared to 3/8 inch metal tubing used in the same system will A. have equivalent flow characteristics. B. have about the same OD. C. usually have interchangeable applications. 213. E01 AMG Magnetic particle inspection is used primarily to detect A. flaws on or near the surface. B. deep subsurface flaws. C. distortion. 214. E01 AMG Liquid penetrant inspection methods may be used on which of the following? 1. porous plastics. 2. ferrous metals. 3. nonferrous metals. 4. smooth unpainted wood. 5. nonporous plastics. A. 2, 3, 5. B. 2, 3, 4. C. 1, 2, 3. 215. E01 AMG Which of these nondestructive testing methods is suitable for the inspection of most metals, plastics, and ceramics for surface and subsurface defects? A. Eddy current inspection. B. Ultrasonic inspection. C. Magnetic particle inspection. 216. E01 AMG What nondestructive testing method requires little or no part preparation, is used to detect surface or near surface defects in most metals, and may also be used to separate metals or alloys and their heat treat conditions? A. Eddy current inspection. B. Magnetic particle inspection. C. Ultrasonic inspection. 217. E01 AMG What method of magnetic particle inspection is used most often to inspect aircraft parts for invisible cracks and other defects? A. Residual. B. Inductance. C. Continuous. 218. E01 AMG How many of these factors are considered essential knowledge for x ray exposure? 1. Processing of the film. 2. Material thickness and density. 3. Exposure distance and angle. 4. Film characteristics. A. One. B. Four. C. Three. 219. E01 AMG The testing medium that is generally used in magnetic particle inspection utilizes a ferromagnetic material that has A. high permeability and high retentivity. B. high permeability and low retentivity. C. low permeability and high retentivity. 220. E01 AMG Which statement relating to the residual magnetizing inspection method is true? A. It may be used with steels which have been heat treated for stressed applications. B. Subsurface discontinuities are made readily apparent. C. It is used in practically all circular and longitudinal magnetizing procedures. 221. E01 AMG A mechanic has completed a bonded honeycomb repair using the potted compound repair technique. What nondestructive testing method is used to determine the soundness of the repair after the repair has cured? A. Metallic ring test. B. Eddy current test. C. Ultrasonic test. 222. E02 AMG What two types of indicating mediums are available for magnetic particle inspection? A. Iron and ferric oxides. B. Wet and dry process materials. C. High retentivity and low permeability material. 223. E02 AMG Which of the following materials may be inspected using the magnetic particle inspection method? 1. Magnesium alloys. 2. Aluminum alloys. 3. Iron alloys. 4. Copper alloys. 5. Zinc alloys. A. 1, 2, 4, 5. B. 3. C. 1, 2, 3. 224. E02 AMG One way a part may be demagnetized after magnetic particle inspection is by A. slowly moving the part out of an ac magnetic field of sufficient strength. B. slowly moving the part into an ac magnetic field of sufficient strength. C. subjecting the part to high voltage, low amperage ac. 225. E02 AMG Which type crack can be detected by magnetic particle inspection using either circular or longitudinal magnetization? A. Longitudinal. B. 45°. C. Transverse. 226. E02 AMG Which of the following methods may be suitable to use to detect cracks open to the surface in aluminum forgings and castings? 1. Dye penetrant inspection. 2. Magnetic particle inspection. 3. Metallic ring (coin tap) inspection. 4. Eddy current inspection. 5. Ultrasonic inspection. 6. Visual inspection. A. 1, 2, 4, 5, 6. B. 1, 4, 5, 6. C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6. 227. E02 AMG To detect a minute crack using dye penetrant inspection usually requires A. that the developer be applied to a flat surface. B. a longer than normal penetrating time. C. the surface to be highly polished. 228. E02 AMG When checking an item with the magnetic particle inspection method, circular and longitudinal magnetization should be used to A. ensure uniform current flow. B. reveal all possible defects. C. evenly magnetize the entire part. 229. E02 AMG In magnetic particle inspection, a flaw that is perpendicular to the magnetic field flux lines generally causes A. a large disruption in the magnetic field. B. no disruption in the magnetic field. C. a minimal disruption in the magnetic field. 230. E02 AMG If dye penetrant inspection indications are not sharp and clear, the most probable cause is that the part A. has no appreciable damage. B. was not correctly degaussed before the developer was applied. C. was not thoroughly washed before the developer was applied. 231. E02 AMG (1) An aircraft part may be demagnetized by subjecting it to a magnetizing force from alternating current that is gradually reduced in strength. (2) An aircraft part may be demagnetized by subjecting it to a magnetizing force from direct current that is alternately reversed in direction and gradually reduced in strength. Regarding the above statements, A. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. B. only No. 1 is true. C. only No. 2 is true. 232. E02 AMG The pattern for an inclusion is a magnetic particle buildup forming A. parallel lines. B. a single line. C. a fernlike pattern. 233. E02 AMG A part which is being prepared for dye penetrant inspection should be cleaned with A. a volatile petroleum base solvent. B. the penetrant developer. C. water base solvents only. 234. E02 AMG Under magnetic particle inspection, a part will be identified as having a fatigue crack under which condition? A. The discontinuity is found in a highly stressed area of the part. B. The discontinuity is found in a nonstressed area of the part. C. The discontinuity pattern is straight. 235. E02 AMG In performing a dye penetrant inspection, the developer A. acts as a blotter to produce a visible indication. B. thoroughly cleans the surface prior to inspection. C. seeps into a surface crack to indicate the presence of a defect. 236. E02 AMG What defects will be detected by magnetizing a part using continuous longitudinal magnetization with a cable? A. Defects parallel to the long axis of the part. B. Defects perpendicular to the long axis of the part. C. Defects parallel to the concentric circles of magnetic force within the part. 237. E02 AMG Circular magnetization of a part can be used to detect which defects? A. Defects perpendicular to the concentric circles of magnetic force within the part. B. Defects parallel to the long axis of the part. C. Defects perpendicular to the long axis of the part. 238. E02 AMG (1) In nondestructive testing, a discontinuity may be defined as an interruption in the normal physical structure or configuration of a part. (2) A discontinuity may or may not affect the usefulness of a part. Regarding the above statements, A. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. B. only No. 2 is true. C. only No. 1 is true. 239. E03 AMG Which of the following describe the effects of annealing steel and aluminum alloys? 1. decrease in internal stress. 2. softening of the metal. 3. improved corrosion resistance. A. 1, 2. B. 2, 3. C. 1, 3. 240. E03 AMG Which heat treating process of metal produces a hard, wear resistant surface over a strong, tough core? A. Case hardening. B. Annealing. C. Tempering. 241. E03 AMG Which heat treating operation would be performed when the surface of the metal is changed chemically by introducing a high carbide or nitride content? A. Case hardening. B. Tempering. C. Normalizing. 242. E03 AMG Normalizing is a process of heat treating A. both aluminum alloys and iron-base metals. B. aluminum alloys only. C. iron-base metals only. 243. E03 AMG When a mechanical force is repeatedly applied to most metals at room temperature, such as rolling, hammering, or bending, the metals become A. stress corrosion cracked. B. cold worked, strain or work hardened C. artificially aged. 244. E03 AMG The reheating of a heat treated metal, such as with a welding torch A. has a cumulative enhancement effect on the original heat treatment. B. has little or no effect on a metal's heat treated characteristics. C. can significantly alter a metal's properties in the reheated area. 245. E03 AMG Why is steel tempered after being hardened? A. To increase its strength and decrease its internal stresses. B. To relieve its internal stresses and reduce its brittleness. C. To increase its hardness and ductility. 246. E03 AMG What aluminum alloy designations indicate that the metal has received no hardening or tempering treatment? A. 6061-O. B. 3003-F. C. 5052-H36. 247. E03 AMG Which material cannot be heat treated repeatedly without harmful effects? A. 6061-T9 stainless steel. B. Unclad aluminum alloy in sheet form. C. Clad aluminum alloy. 248. E03 AMG What is descriptive of the annealing process of steel during and after it has been annealed? A. Rapid cooling; high strength. B. Slow cooling; increased resistance to wear. C. Slow cooling; low strength. 249. E04 AMG Unless otherwise specified, torque values for tightening aircraft nuts and bolts relate to A. clean, dry threads. B. clean, lightly oiled threads. C. either dry or lightly oiled threads. 250. E04 AMG What is generally used in the construction of aircraft engine firewalls? A. Stainless steel. B. Chrome molybdenum alloy steel. C. Magnesium titanium alloy steel. 251. E04 AMG Unless otherwise specified or required, aircraft bolts should be installed so that the bolthead is A. upward, or in a forward direction. B. downward, or in a forward direction. C. downward, or in a rearward direction. 252. E04 AMG Alclad is a metal consisting of A. a homogeneous mixture of pure aluminum and aluminum alloy. B. aluminum alloy surface layers and a pure aluminum core. C. pure aluminum surface layers on an aluminum alloy core. 253. E04 AMG A fiber type, self locking nut must never be used on an aircraft if the bolt is A. under shear loading. B. subject to rotation. C. under tension loading. 254. E04 AMG The Society of Automotive Engineers (SAE) and the American Iron and Steel Institute use a numerical index system to identify the composition of various steels. In the number "4130" designating chromium molybdenum steel, the first digit indicates the A. percentage of the basic element in the alloy. B. basic alloying element. C. percentage of carbon in the alloy in hundredths of a percent. 255. E04 AMG (Refer to figure 42.) Which of the bolthead code markings shown identifies an AN corrosion resistant steel bolt? A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. 256. E04 AMG Aircraft bolts with a cross or asterisk marked on the bolthead are A. made of aluminum alloy. B. standard steel bolts. C. close tolerance bolts. 257. E04 AMG Which statement regarding aircraft bolts is correct? A. When tightening castellated nuts on drilled bolts, if the cotter pin holes do not line up, it is permissible to tighten the nut up to 10 percent over recommended torque to permit alignment of the next slot with the cotter pin hole. B. In general, bolt grip lengths should equal the material thickness. C. Alloy steel bolts smaller than 1/4-inch diameter should not be used in primary structure. 258. E04 AMG Generally speaking, bolt grip lengths should be A. one and one half times the thickness of the material which is fastened together. B. equal to the thickness of the material which is fastened together. C. equal to the thickness of the material which is fastened together, plus approximately one diameter. 259. E04 AMG When the specific torque value for nuts is not given, where can the recommended torque value be found? A. AC 43.13-1B. B. AC 43.13-2A. C. Technical Standard Order. 260. E04 AMG (Refer to figure 43.) Identify the clevis bolt illustrated. A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. 261. E04 AMG A particular component is attached to the aircraft structure by the use of an aircraft bolt and a castle tension nut combination. If the cotter pin hole does not align within the recommended torque range, the acceptable practice is to A. tighten below the torque range. B. exceed the recommended torque range by no more than 10 percent. C. change washers and try again. 262. E04 AMG A bolt with a single raised dash on the head is classified as an A. AN corrosion resistant steel bolt. B. NAS standard aircraft bolt. C. NAS close tolerance bolt. 263. E04 AMG How is a clevis bolt used with a fork end cable terminal secured? A. With a shear nut tightened to a snug fit, but with no strain imposed on the fork and safetied with a cotter pin. B. With a shear nut and cotter pin or a thin self locking nut tightened enough to prevent rotation of the bolt in the fork. C. With a castle nut tightened until slight binding occurs between the fork and the fitting to which it is being attached. 264. E04 AMG Where is an AN clevis bolt used in an airplane? A. Where external tension loads are applied. B. Only for shear load applications. C. For tension and shear load conditions. 265. E04 AMG A bolt with an X inside a triangle on the head is classified as an A. NAS close tolerance bolt. B. NAS standard aircraft bolt. C. AN corrosion resistant steel bolt. 266. E04 AMG The core material of Alclad 2024-T4 is A. strain hardened aluminum alloy, and the surface material is commercially pure aluminum. B. commercially pure aluminum, and the surface material is heat treated aluminum alloy. C. heat treated aluminum alloy, and the surface material is commercially pure aluminum. 267. E04 AMG The aluminum code number 1100 identifies what type of aluminum? A. Aluminum alloy containing zinc. B. Aluminum alloy containing 11 percent copper. C. 99 percent commercially pure aluminum. 268. E04 AMG Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured with a A. class 1 fit for the threads. B. class 2 fit for the threads. C. class 3 fit for the threads. 269. E04 AMG In the four-digit aluminum index system number 2024, the first digit indicates A. the major alloying element. B. the percent of alloying metal added. C. the number of major alloying elements used in the metal. 270. E04 AMG How is the locking feature of the fiber type locknut obtained? A. By the use of an unthreaded fiber locking insert. B. By making the threads in the fiber insert slightly smaller than those in the load carrying section. C. By a fiber insert held firmly in place at the base of the load carrying section. 271. E05 AMG (Refer to figure 44.) Identify the weld caused by an excessive amount of acetylene. A. 1. B. 4. C. 3. 272. E05 AMG (Refer to figure 44.) Select the illustration which depicts a cold weld. A. 4. B. 2. C. 3. 273. E05 AMG Why is it considered good practice to normalize a part after welding? A. To relieve internal stresses developed within the base metal. B. To increase the hardness of the weld. C. To remove the surface scale formed during welding. 274. E05 AMG Holes and a few projecting globules are found in a weld. What action should be taken? A. Grind the rough surface smooth, inspect, and reweld all gaps/holes. B. Reweld the defective portions. C. Remove all the old weld, and reweld the joint. 275. E05 AMG Which condition indicates a part has cooled too quickly after being welded? A. Discoloration of the base metal. B. Cracking adjacent to the weld. C. Gas pockets, porosity, and slag inclusions. 276. E05 AMG Select a characteristic of a good gas weld. A. The weld should taper off smoothly into the base metal. B. The depth of penetration shall be sufficient to ensure fusion of the filler rod. C. The height of the weld bead should be 1/8 inch above the base metal. 277. E05 AMG One characteristic of a good weld is that no oxide should be formed on the base metal at a distance from the weld of more than A. 1/2 inch. B. 1 inch. C. 1/4 inch. 278. E05 AMG (Refer to figure 45.) What type weld is shown at A? A. Fillet. B. Butt. C. Lap. 279. E05 AMG (Refer to figure 45.) What type weld is shown at B? A. Butt. B. Fillet. C. Double butt. 280. E05 AMG (Refer to figure 45.) What type weld is shown at G? A. Joint. B. Butt. C. Lap. 281. E05 AMG On a fillet weld, the penetration requirement includes what percentage(s) of the base metal thickness? A. 100 percent. B. 60 to 80 percent. C. 25 to 50 percent. 282. E06 AMG Which tool can be used to measure the alignment of a rotor shaft or the plane of rotation of a disk? A. Dial indicator. B. Shaft gauge. C. Protractor. 283. E06 AMG (Refer to figure 46.) The measurement reading on the illustrated micrometer is A. 0.2901. B. 0.2851. C. 0.2911. 284. E06 AMG Identify the correct statement. A. Dividers do not provide a reading when used as a measuring device. B. An outside micrometer is limited to measuring diameters. C. Tools used on certificated aircraft must be an approved type. 285. E06 AMG (Refer to figure 47.) What is the measurement reading on the vernier caliper scale? A. 1.436 inches. B. 1.700 inches. C. 1.411 inches. 286. E06 AMG Which tool is used to measure the clearance between a surface plate and a relatively narrow surface being checked for flatness? A. Dial indicator. B. Depth gauge. C. Thickness gauge. 287. E06 AMG Which number represents the vernier scale graduation of a micrometer? A. .00001. B. .0001. C. .001. 288. E06 AMG Which tool is used to find the center of a shaft or other cylindrical work? A. Dial indicator. B. Combination set. C. Micrometer caliper. 289. E06 AMG (Refer to figure 48.) What does the micrometer read? A. .2974. B. .3108. C. .3004. 290. E06 AMG If it is necessary to accurately measure the diameter of a hole approximately 1/4 inch in diameter, the mechanic should use a A. telescoping gauge and determine the size of the hole by taking a micrometer reading of the adjustable end of the telescoping gauge. B. 0 to 1 inch inside micrometer and read the measurement directly from the micrometer. C. small hole gauge and determine the size of the hole by taking a micrometer reading of the ball end of the gauge. 291. E06 AMG (Refer to figure 49.) The measurement reading on the micrometer is A. .2758. B. .2702. C. .2792. 292. E06 AMG What tool is generally used to set a divider to an exact dimension? A. Machinist scale. B. Surface gauge. C. Dial indicator. 293. E06 AMG What tool is generally used to calibrate a micrometer or check its accuracy? A. Machinist scale. B. Dial indicator. C. Gauge block. 294. E06 AMG What precision measuring tool is used for measuring crankpin and main bearing journals for out of round wear? A. Dial gauge. B. Depth gauge. C. Micrometer caliper. 295. E06 AMG The side clearances of piston rings are measured with a A. micrometer caliper gauge. B. dial gauge. C. thickness gauge. 296. E06 AMG How can the dimensional inspection of a bearing in a rocker arm be accomplished? A. Depth gauge and micrometer. B. Telescopic gauge and micrometer. C. Thickness gauge and push fit arbor. 297. E06 AMG The twist of a connecting rod is checked by installing push fit arbors in both ends, supported by parallel steel bars on a surface plate. Measurements are taken between the arbor and the parallel bar with a A. dial gauge. B. height gauge. C. thickness gauge. 298. E06 AMG The clearance between the piston rings and the ring lands is measured with a A. depth gauge. B. micrometer caliper. C. thickness gauge. 299. E06 AMG What may be used to check the stem on a poppet-type valve for stretch? A. Dial indicator. B. Micrometer. C. Telescoping gauge. 300. E06 AMG Which tool can be used to determine piston pin out of round wear? A. Telescopic gauge. B. Dial indicator. C. Micrometer caliper. 301. F01 AMG During starting of a turbine powerplant using a compressed air starter, a hung start occurred. Select the proper procedure. A. Shut the engine down. B. Advance power lever to increase RPM. C. Re-engage the starter. 302. F01 AMG A hung start in a jet engine is often caused by A. malfunctions in the ignition system. B. an excessively rich fuel/air mixture. C. the starter cutting off too soon. 303. F01 AMG Which statement below reflects a typical requirement when towing some aircraft? A. Tailwheel aircraft must be towed backwards. B. Discharge all hydraulic pressure to prevent accidental operation of the nosewheel steering mechanism. C. If the aircraft has a steerable nosewheel, the torque-link lock should be set to full swivel. 304. F01 AMG Which statement(s) is/are true regarding tiedown of small aircraft? 1. Manila (hemp) rope has a tendency to stretch when it gets wet. 2. Nylon or dacron rope is preferred to manila rope. 3. The aircraft should be headed downwind in order to eliminate or minimize wing lift. 4. Leave the nosewheel or tailwheel unlocked. A. 1, 2, 3, and 4. B. 1 and 2. C. 2. 305. F01 AMG When approaching the front of an idling jet engine, the hazard area extends forward of the engine approximately A. 15 feet. B. 10 feet. C. 25 feet. 306. F01 AMG Which of the following is the most satisfactory extinguishing agent for use on a carburetor or intake fire? A. Carbon dioxide. B. Dry chemical. C. A fine, water mist. 307. F01 AMG (Refer to figure 50.) Identify the signal to engage rotor on a rotorcraft. A. 2. B. 1. C. 3. 308. F01 AMG If a radial engine has been shut down for more than 30 minutes, the propeller should be rotated through at least two revolutions to A. check for hydraulic lock. B. check for leaks. C. prime the engine. 309. F01 AMG The priming of a fuel injected horizontally opposed engine is accomplished by placing the fuel control lever in the A. AUTO RICH position. B. FULL RICH position. C. IDLE CUTOFF position. 310. F01 AMG The most important condition to be monitored during start after fuel flow begins in a turbine engine is the A. oil pressure. B. EGT, TIT, or ITT. C. RPM. 311. F01 AMG How is a flooded engine, equipped with a float type carburetor, cleared of excessive fuel? A. Crank the engine with the starter or by hand, with the mixture control in cutoff, ignition switch off, and the throttle fully open, until the fuel charge has been cleared. B. Turn off the fuel and the ignition. Discontinue the starting attempt until the excess fuel has cleared. C. Crank the engine with the starter or by hand, with the mixture control in cutoff, ignition switch on, and the throttle fully open, until the excess fuel has cleared or until the engine starts. 312. F01 AMG (Refer to figure 51.) Which marshalling signal should be given if a taxiing aircraft is in danger of striking an object? A. 1 or 3. B. 2. C. 3. 313. F01 AMG Generally, when an induction fire occurs during starting of a reciprocating engine, the first course of action should be to A. close the throttle. B. continue cranking and start the engine if possible. C. discharge carbon dioxide from a fire extinguisher into the air intake of the engine. 314. F01 AMG When starting and ground operating an aircraft's engine, the aircraft should be positioned to head into the wind primarily A. to help cancel out engine torque effect. B. for engine cooling purposes. C. to aid in achieving and maintaining the proper air and fuel mixture flow in the engine. 315. F01 AMG If a hot start occurs during starting of a turbine powerplant, what is the likely cause? A. The starting unit overheated. B. The ambient air temperature was too high (over 100 degrees F). C. The fuel/air mixture was excessively rich. 316. F01 AMG What effect will aviation gasoline mixed with jet fuel have on a turbine engine? A. The tetraethyl lead in the gasoline forms deposits on the compressor blades. B. No appreciable effect. C. The tetraethyl lead in the gasoline forms deposits on the turbine blades. 317. F01 AMG (1) Jet fuel is of higher viscosity than aviation gasoline and therefore holds contaminants better. (2) Viscosity has no relation to contamination of fuel. Regarding the above statements, A. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. B. only No. 1 is true. C. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. 318. F01 AMG When towing a large aircraft A. a person should be in the cockpit to operate the brakes. B. persons should be stationed at the nose, each wingtip, and the empennage at all times. C. a person should be in the cockpit to watch for obstructions. 319. F01 AMG When taxiing an airplane with a quartering tailwind, the elevators and A. upwind aileron should be held in the up position. B. upwind aileron should be held in the down position. C. both ailerons should be kept in the neutral position. 320. F01 AMG When taxiing (or towing) an aircraft, a flashing red light from the control tower means A. return to starting point. B. move clear of the runway/taxiway immediately. C. stop and wait for a green light. 321. F01 AMG A person should approach or leave a helicopter in the pilot's field of vision whenever the engine is running in order to avoid A. the main rotor. B. the tail rotor. C. blowing dust or debris caused by rotor downwash. 322. F01 AMG When taxiing (or towing) an aircraft, a flashing white light from the control tower means A. move clear of the runway/taxiway immediately. B. OK to proceed but use extreme caution. C. return to starting point. 323. F01 AMG When taxiing (or towing) an aircraft, an alternating red and green light from the control tower means A. move clear of the runway/taxiway immediately. B. OK to proceed but use extreme caution. C. return to starting point. 324. F01 AMG When stopping a nosewheel-type airplane after taxiing, the nosewheel should be left A. unlocked. B. pointed straight ahead. C. turned at a small angle. 325. F01 AMG When first starting to move an aircraft while taxiing, it is important to A. closely monitor the instruments. B. notify the control tower. C. test the brakes. 326. F02 AMG The color of 100LL fuel is A. blue. B. colorless or straw. C. red. 327. F02 AMG How are aviation fuels, which possess greater antiknock qualities than 100 octane, classified? A. According to the milliliters of lead. B. By reference to normal heptane. C. By performance numbers. 328. F02 AMG Why is ethylene dibromide added to aviation gasoline? A. To remove zinc silicate deposits from the spark plugs. B. To increase the antiknock rating of the fuel. C. To scavenge lead oxide from the cylinder combustion chambers. 329. F02 AMG Both gasoline and kerosene have certain advantages for use as turbine fuel. Which statement is true in reference to the advantages of each? A. Kerosene has a higher heat energy per unit weight than gasoline. B. Gasoline has a higher heat energy per unit volume than kerosene. C. Kerosene has a higher heat energy per unit volume than gasoline. 330. F02 AMG What must accompany fuel vaporization? A. A decrease in vapor pressure. B. An absorption of heat. C. A reduction in volume. 331. F02 AMG Characteristics of detonation are A. cylinder pressure remains the same, excessive cylinder head temperature, and a decrease in engine power. B. rapid rise in cylinder pressure, excessive cylinder head temperature, and a decrease in engine power. C. rapid rise in cylinder pressure, cylinder head temperature normal, and a decrease in engine power. 332. F02 AMG A fuel that vaporizes too readily may cause A. detonation. B. hard starting. C. vapor lock. 333. F02 AMG Jet fuel number identifiers are A. performance numbers and are relative to the fuel's performance in the aircraft engine. B. type numbers and have no relation to the fuel's performance in the aircraft engine. C. performance numbers to designate the volatility of the fuel. 334. F02 AMG The main differences between grades 100 and 100LL fuel are A. volatility, lead content, and color. B. lead content and color. C. volatility and lead content. 335. F02 AMG Characteristics of aviation gasoline are A. high heat value, low volatility. B. high heat value, high volatility. C. low heat value, low volatility. 336. F02 AMG Tetraethyl lead is added to aviation gasoline to A. retard the formation of corrosives. B. improve the gasoline's performance in the engine. C. dissolve the moisture in the gasoline. 337. F02 AMG A fuel that does not vaporize readily enough can cause A. vapor lock. B. hard starting. C. detonation. 338. G01 AMG A primary reason why ordinary or otherwise nonapproved cleaning compounds should not be used when washing aircraft is because their use can result in A. hydrogen embrittlement in nonmetallic materials. B. a general inability to remove compound residues. C. hydrogen embrittlement in metal structures. 339. G01 AMG How may magnesium engine parts be cleaned? A. Spray with MEK (methyl ethyl ketone). B. Soak in a 20 percent caustic soda solution. C. Wash with a commercial solvent, decarbonize, and scrape or grit blast. 340. G01 AMG When an anodized surface coating is damaged in service, it can be partially restored by A. chemical surface treatment. B. use of a suitable mild cleaner. C. applying a thin coat of zinc chromate primer. 341. G01 AMG Select the solvent recommended for wipedown of cleaned surfaces just before painting. A. Aromatic naptha. B. Dry-cleaning solvent. C. Aliphatic naphtha. 342. G01 AMG Nickel cadmium battery cases and drain surfaces which have been affected by electrolyte should be neutralized with a solution of A. potassium hydroxide. B. sodium bicarbonate. C. boric acid. 343. G01 AMG Which of the following are acceptable to use when utilizing chemical cleaning agents to clean aircraft? 1. Synthetic fiber wiping cloths when using a flammable agent. 2. Cotton fiber wiping cloths when using a flammable agent. 3. Atomizing spray equipment. A. 1. B. 2 and 3 C. 2. 344. G01 AMG Select the solvent used to clean acrylics and rubber. A. Methyl ethyl ketone. B. Aliphatic naphtha. C. Aromatic naphtha. 345. G01 AMG Fayed surfaces cause concern in chemical cleaning because of the danger of A. corrosion by imbedded iron oxide. B. entrapping corrosive materials. C. forming passive oxides. 346. G01 AMG Caustic cleaning products used on aluminum structures have the effect of producing A. corrosion. B. passive oxidation. C. improved corrosion resistance. 347. G02 AMG Fretting corrosion is most likely to occur A. only when two dissimilar metals are in contact. B. when two surfaces fit loosely together and can move relative to one another. C. when two surfaces fit tightly together but can move relative to one another. 348. G02 AMG The rust or corrosion that occurs with most metals is the result of A. a tendency for them to return to their natural state. B. blocking the flow of electrons in homogenous metals, or between dissimilar metals. C. electron flow in or between metals from cathodic to anodic areas. 349. G02 AMG Which of the following are the desired effects of using Alodine on aluminum alloy? 1. A slightly rough surface. 2. Relieved surface stresses. 3. A smooth painting surface. 4. Increased corrosion resistance. A. 3 and 4. B. 1, 2, and 4. C. 1 and 4. 350. G02 AMG Which of the listed conditions is NOT one of the requirements for corrosion to occur? A. The presence of a passive oxide film. B. The presence of an electrolyte. C. Electrical contact between an anodic area and a cathodic area. 351. G02 AMG The lifting or flaking of the metal at the surface due to delamination of grain boundaries caused by the pressure of corrosion residual product buildup is called A. exfoliation. B. brinelling. C. granulation. 352. G02 AMG A nonelectrolytic chemical treatment for aluminum alloys to increase corrosion resistance and paint bonding qualities is called A. alodizing. B. dichromating. C. anodizing. 353. G02 AMG Which of the following are acceptable to use in cleaning anodized surfaces? 1. Steel wool. 2. Brass wire brush. 3. Aluminum wool. 4. Stainless steel wire brush. 5. Fiber bristle brush. A. 2 & 4. B. 1, 3, & 5. C. 3 & 5. 354. G02 AMG Intergranular corrosion in aluminum alloy parts A. cannot always be detected by surface indications. B. may be detected by surface pitting, and white, powdery deposit formed on the surface of the metal. C. commonly appears as threadlike filaments of corrosion products under a dense film of paint. 355. G02 AMG What may be used to remove corrosion from highly stressed steel surfaces? A. Steel wire brushes. B. Fine grit aluminum oxide. C. Medium grit carborundum paper. 356. G02 AMG A primary cause of intergranular corrosion is A. dissimilar metal contact. B. improper application of primer. C. improper heat treatment. 357. G02 AMG Corrosion should be removed from magnesium parts with a A. stiff, nonmetallic brush. B. silicon carbide brush. C. carborundum abrasive. 358. G02 AMG Why is it important not to rotate the crankshaft after the corrosion preventive mixture has been put into the cylinders on engines prepared for storage? A. The seal of corrosion preventive mixture will be broken. B. Fuel may be drawn into one or more cylinders and dilute or wash off the corrosion preventive mixture. C. Engine damage can occur from hydraulic lock. 359. G02 AMG Why is a plastic surface flushed with fresh water before it is cleaned with soap and water? A. To prevent crazing. B. To prevent scratching. C. To prevent discoloration. 360. G02 AMG What should be done to prevent rapid deterioration when oil or grease come in contact with a tire? A. Wipe the tire thoroughly with a dry cloth, and then rinse with clean water. B. Wipe the tire with a dry cloth followed by a washdown and rinse with soap and water. C. Wipe the tire with a cloth dampened with aromatic naphtha and then wipe dry with a clean cloth. 361. G02 AMG Galvanic corrosion at the interface of a dissimilar metal part may best be prevented by A. placing a nonporous dielectric material between the surfaces. B. sealing exposed seam edges with a recommended sealing compound. C. conducting frequent inspections and keeping all exposed areas of the part clean. 362. G02 AMG Corrosion caused by galvanic action is the result of A. contact between two unlike metals. B. excessive anodization. C. excessive etching. 363. G02 AMG Which of these materials is the most anodic? A. Magnesium. B. Cadmium. C. 7075-T6 aluminum alloy. 364. G02 AMG The interior surface of sealed structural steel tubing would be best protected against corrosion by which of the following? A. Charging the tubing with dry nitrogen prior to sealing. B. A coating of linseed oil. C. Evacuating moisture from the tubing before sealing. 365. G02 AMG Which of these materials is the most cathodic? A. Stainless steel. B. 2024 aluminum alloy. C. Zinc. 366. G02 AMG Galvanic corrosion is likely to be most rapid and severe when A. the surface area of the cathodic metal is smaller than surface area of the anodic metal. B. the surface areas of the anodic and cathodic metals are approximately the same. C. the surface area of the anodic metal is smaller than the surface area of the cathodic metal. 367. G02 AMG One way of obtaining increased resistance to stress corrosion cracking is by A. producing nonuniform deformation while cold working during the manufacturing process. B. relieving compressive stresses on the metal surface. C. creating compressive stresses on the metal surface. 368. G02 AMG (1) In the corrosion process, it is the cathodic area or dissimilar cathodic material that corrodes. (2) In the Galvanic or Electro-Chemical Series for metals, the most anodic metals are those that will give up electrons most easily. Regarding the above statements, A. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. B. only No. 1 is true. C. only No. 2 is true. 369. G02 AMG Spilled mercury on aluminum A. increases susceptibility to hydrogen embrittlement. B. causes rapid and severe corrosion that is very difficult to control. C. may cause impaired corrosion resistance if left in prolonged contact. 370. H01 AMG What power of 10 is equal to 1,000,000? A. 10 to the fourth power. B. 10 to the fifth power. C. 10 to the sixth power. 371. H01 AMG Find the square root of 1,746. A. 41.7852. B. 41.7752. C. 40.7742. 372. H01 AMG (Refer to figure 52.) Solve the equation. A. 115. B. 5. C. 4.472. 373. H01 AMG Find the square root of 3,722.1835. A. 61.0097. B. 61.00. C. 61.00971. 374. H01 AMG 8,019.0514 x 1/81 is equal to the square root of A. 9,108. B. 9,081. C. 9,801. 375. H01 AMG Find the cube of 64. A. 4. B. 192. C. 262,144. 376. H01 AMG Find the value of 10 raised to the negative sixth power. A. 0.0001. B. 0.000010. C. 0.000001. 377. H01 AMG What is the square root of 4 raised to the fifth power? A. 64. B. 32. C. 20. 378. H01 AMG The number 3.47 x 10 to the negative fourth power is equal to A. 34,700.0. B. .00347. C. .000347. 379. H01 AMG Which alternative answer is equal to 16,300? A. 1.63 x 10 to the fourth power. B. 1.63 x 10 to the negative third power. C. 163 x 10 to the negative second power. 380. H01 AMG Find the square root of 124.9924. A. .1118 x 10 to the negative second power. B. 111.8 x 10 to the third power. C. 1,118 x 10 to the negative second power. 381. H01 AMG What is the square root of 16 raised to the fourth power? A. 4,096. B. 256. C. 1,024. 382. H01 AMG (Refer to figure 53.) Solve the equation. A. .1680. B. .0419. C. .0297. 383. H01 AMG The result of 7 raised to the third power plus the square root of 39 is equal to A. .34924. B. 349.24. C. 343.24. 384. H01 AMG Find the square root of 1,824. A. 42.708 x 10 to the negative second power. B. .42708. C. .42708 x 10 to the second power. 385. H02 AMG The total piston displacement of a specific engine is A. dependent on the compression ratio. B. the total volume of all the cylinders. C. the volume displaced by all the pistons during one revolution of the crankshaft. 386. H02 AMG (Refer to figure 54.) Compute the area of the trapezoid. A. 60 square feet. B. 76.5 square feet. C. 52.5 square feet. 387. H02 AMG What size sheet of metal is required to fabricate a cylinder 20 inches long and 8 inches in diameter? (Note: C = pi x D) A. 20" x 24-9/64". B. 20" x 25-9/64". C. 20" x 25-5/32". 388. H02 AMG (Refer to figure 55.) Find the area of the triangle shown. A. 6 square inches. B. 15 square inches. C. 12 square inches. 389. H02 AMG What force is exerted on the piston in a hydraulic cylinder if the area of the piston is 1.2 square inches and the fluid pressure is 850 PSI? A. 850 pounds. B. 960 pounds. C. 1,020 pounds. 390. H02 AMG A rectangular shaped fuel tank measures 60 inches in length, 30 inches in width, and 12 inches in depth. How many cubic feet are within the tank? A. 21.0. B. 15.0. C. 12.5. 391. H02 AMG Select the container size that will be equal in volume to 60 gallons of fuel. (7.5 gal = 1 cu ft) A. 8.5 cubic feet. B. 7.5 cubic feet. C. 8.0 cubic feet. 392. H02 AMG (Refer to figure 56.) Compute the area of the trapezoid. A. 48 square feet. B. 24 square feet. C. 10 square feet. 393. H02 AMG (Refer to figure 57.) Determine the area of the triangle formed by points A, B, and C. A to B = 7.5 inches A to D = 16.8 inches A. 126 square inches. B. 63 square inches. C. 42 square inches. 394. H02 AMG What is the piston displacement of a master cylinder with a 1.5-inch diameter bore and a piston stroke of 4 inches? A. 6.1541 cubic inches. B. 9.4247 cubic inches. C. 7.0686 cubic inches. 395. H02 AMG How many gallons of fuel will be contained in a rectangular shaped tank which measures 2 feet in width, 3 feet in length, and 1 foot 8 inches in depth? (7.5 gal = 1 cu ft) A. 75. B. 45. C. 66.6. 396. H02 AMG A rectangular shaped fuel tank measures 27-1/2 inches in length, 3/4 foot in width, and 8-1/4 inches in depth. How many gallons will the tank contain? (231 cu in = 1 gal) A. 7.86. B. 8.80. C. 9.80. 397. H02 AMG A four cylinder aircraft engine has a cylinder bore of 3.78 inches and is 8.5 inches deep. With the piston on bottom center, the top of the piston measures 4.0 inches from the bottom of the cylinder. What is the approximate piston displacement of this engine? A. 200 cubic inches. B. 360 cubic inches. C. 235 cubic inches. 398. H02 AMG A rectangular shaped fuel tank measures 37-1/2 inches in length, 14 inches in width, and 8-1/4 inches in depth. How many cubic inches are within the tank? A. 4,331.25. B. 525. C. 433.125. 399. H02 AMG A six cylinder engine with a bore of 3.5 inches, a cylinder height of 7 inches and a stroke of 4.5 inches will have a total piston displacement of A. 43.3 cubic inches. B. 256.88 cubic inches. C. 259.77 cubic inches. 400. H03 AMG Select the fraction which is equal to .020. A. 1/5. B. 1/50. C. 2/5. 401. H03 AMG 1.21875 is equal to A. 19/16. B. 83/64. C. 39/32. 402. H03 AMG If the volume of a cylinder with the piston at bottom center is 84 cubic inches and the piston displacement is 70 cubic inches, then the compression ratio is A. 7 to 1. B. 1.2 to 1. C. 6 to 1. 403. H03 AMG Express 7/8 as a percent. A. 8.75 percent. B. .875 percent. C. 87.5 percent. 404. H03 AMG What is the speed of a spur gear with 42 teeth driven by a pinion gear with 14 teeth turning 420 RPM? A. 160 RPM. B. 140 RPM. C. 588 RPM. 405. H03 AMG An engine develops 108 horsepower at 87 percent power. What horsepower would be developed at 65 percent power? A. 70. B. 80. C. 64. 406. H03 AMG A certain aircraft bolt has an overall length of 1-1/2 inches, with a shank length of 1-3/16 inches, and a threaded portion length of 5/8 inch. What is the grip length? A. .5625 inch. B. .8750 inch. C. .3125 inch. 407. H03 AMG Select the fractional equivalent for a 0.0625 inch thick sheet of aluminum. A. 1/16. B. 1/32. C. 3/64. 408. H03 AMG Express 5/8 as a percent. A. 62.5 percent. B. 6.25 percent. C. .625 percent. 409. H03 AMG Select the decimal which is most nearly equal to 77/64. A. 1.2031. B. 0.8311. C. 0.08311. 410. H03 AMG An airplane flying a distance of 875 miles used 70 gallons of gasoline. How many gallons will it need to travel 3,000 miles? A. 144. B. 240. C. 250. 411. H03 AMG What is the speed ratio of a gear with 36 teeth meshed to a gear with 20 teeth? A. 6.6 to 12. B. 5 to 12. C. 5 to 9. 412. H03 AMG A pinion gear with 14 teeth is driving a spur gear with 42 teeth at 140 RPM. Determine the speed of the pinion gear. A. 240 RPM. B. 420 RPM. C. 588 RPM. 413. H03 AMG The parts department's profit is 12 percent on a new part. How much does the part cost if the selling price is $145.60? A. $125.60. B. $128.12. C. $130. 414. H03 AMG If an engine is turning 1,965 rpm at 65 percent power, what is its maximum rpm? A. 3,023. B. 2,653. C. 3,242. 415. H03 AMG An engine of 98 horsepower maximum is running at 75 percent power. What is the horsepower being developed? A. 73.50. B. 33.30. C. 87.00. 416. H03 AMG A blueprint shows a hole of 0.17187 to be drilled. Which fraction size drill bit is most nearly equal? A. 11/64. B. 11/32. C. 9/32. 417. H03 AMG Which decimal is most nearly equal to a bend radius of 31/64? A. 0.2065. B. 0.4844. C. 0.3164. 418. H03 AMG Sixty five engines are what percent of 80 engines? A. 65 percent. B. 52 percent. C. 81 percent. 419. H03 AMG The radius of a piece of round stock is 7/32. Select the decimal which is most nearly equal to the diameter. A. 0.3531. B. 0.2187. C. 0.4375. 420. H03 AMG Maximum engine life is 900 hours. Recently, 27 engines were removed with an average life of 635.3 hours. What percent of the maximum engine life has been achieved? A. 73 percent. B. 71 percent. C. 72 percent. 421. H03 AMG What is the ratio of 10 feet to 30 inches? A. 1:3. B. 4:1. C. 3:1. 422. H03 AMG How much current does a 30-volt motor, 1/2-horsepower, 85-percent efficient, draw from the bus? (Note: 1 horsepower = 746 watts) A. 14.1 amperes. B. 14.6 amperes. C. 12.4 amperes. 423. H04 AMG Solve the equation [(4 x -3) + (-9 x 2)] [divided by] 2 = A. -30. B. -5. C. -15. 424. H04 AMG Solve the equation. (64 x 3/8) [divided by] 3/4 = A. 32. B. 18. C. 24. 425. H04 AMG Solve the equation. (32 x 3/8) [divided by] ( 1/6 = A. 2. B. 72. C. 12. 426. H04 AMG What is the ratio of a gasoline fuel load of 200 gallons to one of 1,680 pounds? A. 5:42. B. 5:7. C. 2:3. 427. H04 AMG Solve the equation. 2/4 (30 + 34) 5 = A. 160. B. 100. C. 245. 428. H04 AMG (Refer to figure 58.) Solve the equation. A. -81.49. B. 174.85. C. 14.00. 429. H04 AMG (Refer to figure 59.) Solve the equation. A. +31.25. B. -31.25. C. -5.20. 430. H04 AMG Solve the equation. 4 - 3[-6(2+3) + 4] = A. 82. B. -71. C. -25. 431. H04 AMG Solve the equation. -6[-9(-8+4) - 2(7 + 3)] = A. -332. B. 216. C. -96. 432. H04 AMG Solve the equation. (-3 + 2)( -12 - 4) + (-4 + 6) x 2 A. 28. B. 20. C. 35. 433. H04 AMG (Refer to figure 60.) Solve the equation. A. 11.7. B. 11.09. C. 11.9. 434. I01 AMG Where is the record of compliance with Airworthiness Directives or manufacturers' service bulletins normally indicated? A. Aircraft maintenance records. B. FAA Form 337. C. Flight manual. 435. I01 AMG If work performed on an aircraft has been done satisfactorily, the signature of an authorized person on the maintenance records for maintenance or alterations performed constitutes A. approval for return to service only for the work performed. B. approval of the aircraft for return to service. C. only verification that the maintenance or alterations were performed referencing maintenance data. 436. I01 AMG During an annual inspection, if a defect is found which makes the aircraft unairworthy, the person disapproving must A. provide a written notice of the defect to the owner. B. submit a Malfunction or Defect Report. C. void the aircraft's Airworthiness Certificate. 437. I01 AMG What is the means by which the FAA notifies aircraft owners and other interested persons of unsafe conditions and prescribes the condition under which the product may continue to be operated? A. Airworthiness Directives. B. Aviation Safety Data. C. Aviation Maintenance Alerts. 438. I01 AMG Which is an appliance major repair? A. Troubleshooting and repairing broken circuits in landing light circuits. B. Repairs to a propeller governor or its control. C. Overhaul of a hydraulic pressure pump. 439. I01 AMG Where should you find this entry? ''Removed right wing from aircraft and removed skin from outer 6 feet. Repaired buckled spar 49 inches from tip in accordance with figure 8 in the manufacturer's structural repair manual No. 28-1.'' A. Aircraft engine maintenance record. B. FAA Form 337. C. Aircraft minor repair and alteration record. 440. I01 AMG Which maintenance action is an airframe major repair? A. Changes to the wing or to fixed or movable control surfaces which affect flutter and vibration characteristics. B. Rewinding the field coil of an electrical accessory. C. The repair of portions of skin sheets by making additional seams. 441. I01 AMG Which aircraft record entry is the best description of the replacement of several damaged heli coils in a casting? A. Eight 1/4 - 20 inch standard heli-coils were installed in place of damaged ones. B. Eight 1/4 - 20 inch standard heli-coils were replaced. The damaged inserts were extracted, the tapped holes gaged, then new inserts installed, and tangs removed. C. Eight 1/4 - 20 inch standard heli-coil inserts were repaired by replacing the damaged inserts with a lock type insert, after the tapped holes were checked for corrosion. 442. I01 AMG Which maintenance record entry best describes the action taken for a control cable showing approximately 20 percent wear on several of the individual outer wires at a fairlead? A. Wear within acceptable limits, repair not necessary. B. Cable repositioned, worn area moved away from fairlead. C. Removed and replaced the control cable and rerigged the system. 443. I01 AMG Which maintenance record entry best describes the action taken for a .125-inch deep dent in a straight section of 1/2-inch aluminum alloy tubing? A. Dent within acceptable limits, repair not necessary. B. Dented section removed and replaced with identical new tubing flared to 37°. C. Dented section removed and replaced with identical new tubing flared to 45°. 444. I01 AMG Which aircraft record entry best describes a repair of a dent in a tubular steel structure dented at a cluster? A. Removed and replaced the damaged member. B. Filled the damaged area with a molten metal and dressed to the original contour. C. Welded a reinforcing plate over the dented area. 445. I02 AMG Who is responsible for making the entry in the maintenance records after an annual, 100-hour, or progressive inspection? A. The designee or inspector representing the FAA Administrator. B. The person approving or disapproving for return to service. C. The owner or operator of the aircraft. 446. I02 AMG An aircraft owner was provided a list of discrepancies on an aircraft that was not approved for return to service after an annual inspection. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning who may correct the discrepancies? 1. Only a mechanic with an inspection authorization. 2. An appropriately rated mechanic. 3. Any certificated repair station. A. 2 . B. 2 & 3. C. 1. 447. I02 AMG When approving for return to service after maintenance or alteration, the approving person must enter in the maintenance record of the aircraft A. a description (or reference to acceptable data) of work performed, date of completion, the name of the person performing the work (if someone else), signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held. B. a description (or reference to acceptable data) of work performed, date of completion, the name of the person performing the work (if someone else), signature, and certificate number. C. the date the maintenance or alteration was begun, a description (or reference to acceptable data) of work performed, the name of the person performing the work (if someone else), signature, and certificate number. 448. I02 AMG What is/are the appropriate action(s) concerning minor repairs performed on a certificated aircraft? 1. FAA Form 337's must be completed. 2. Entries must be made in the aircraft's maintenance record. 3. The owner of the aircraft must submit a record of all minor repairs to the FAA at least annually. A. 2. B. 2 and 3. C. 1 and 2. 449. I02 AMG After making a certain repair to an aircraft engine that is to be returned to service, an FAA Form 337 is prepared. How many copies are required and what is the disposition of the completed forms? A. Two; one copy for the FAA and one copy for the permanent records of the repairing agency or individual. B. Two; one copy for the aircraft owner and one copy for the FAA. C. Three; one copy for the aircraft owner, one copy for the FAA, and one copy for the permanent records of the repairing agency or individual. 450. I02 AMG Who is responsible for upkeep of the required maintenance records for an aircraft? A. The maintaining repair station or authorized inspector. B. The aircraft owner. C. The maintaining certificated mechanic. 451. I02 AMG An aircraft was not approved for return to service after an annual inspection and the owner wanted to fly the aircraft to another maintenance base. Which statement is correct? A. The aircraft may be flown without restriction up to 10 hours to reach another maintenance base. B. The owner must obtain a special flight permit. C. The aircraft becomes a restricted category type until it is approved for return to service. 452. I02 AMG Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall use a checklist that contains at least those items in the appendix of A. 14 CFR Part 43. B. AC 43.13-3. C. 14 CFR Part 65. 453. I02 AMG An FAA Form 337 is used to record and document A. preventive and routine maintenance. B. major repairs and major alterations. C. major and minor repairs, and major and minor alterations. 454. I02 AMG After a mechanic holding an airframe and powerplant rating completes a 100-hour inspection, what action is required before the aircraft is returned to service? A. A mechanic with an inspection authorization must approve the inspection. B. Make the proper entries in the aircraft's maintenance record. C. An operational check of all systems. 455. I02 AMG Which of the following may a certificated airframe and powerplant mechanic perform on aircraft and approve for return to service? 1. a 100-hour inspection. 2. an annual inspection, under specified circumstances. 3. a progressive inspection, under specified circumstances. A. 1, 3. B. 1, 2, 3. C. 1, 2. 456. J01 AMG The force that can be produced by an actuating cylinder whose piston has a cross sectional area of 3 square inches operating in a 1,000-PSI hydraulic system is most nearly A. 3,000 pounds. B. 1,500 pounds. C. 1,000 pounds. 457. J01 AMG The boiling point of a given liquid varies A. inversely with pressure. B. directly with volume. C. directly with pressure. 458. J01 AMG Which of the following is NOT considered a method of heat transfer? A. Diffusion. B. Convection. C. Conduction. 459. J01 AMG An engine that weighs 350 pounds is removed from an aircraft by means of a mobile hoist. The engine is raised 3 feet above its attachment mount, and the entire assembly is then moved forward 12 feet. A constant force of 70 pounds is required to move the loaded hoist. What is the total work input required to move the hoist? A. 1,050 foot pounds. B. 840 foot pounds. C. 1,890 foot pounds. 460. J01 AMG Which condition is the actual amount of water vapor in a mixture of air and water? A. Dewpoint. B. Relative humidity. C. Absolute humidity. 461. J01 AMG Under which conditions will the rate of flow of a liquid through a metering orifice (or jet) be the greatest (all other factors being equal)? A. Unmetered pressure, 18 PSI, [new line]metered pressure, 17.5 PSI, [new line]atmospheric pressure, 14.5 PSI. B. Unmetered pressure, 23 PSI, [new line]metered pressure, 12 PSI, [new line]atmospheric pressure, 14.3 PSI. C. Unmetered pressure, 17 PSI, [new line]metered pressure, 5 PSI, [new line]atmospheric pressure, 14.7 PSI. 462. J01 AMG (Refer to figure 61.) The amount of force applied to rope A to lift the weight is A. 20 pounds. B. 12 pounds. C. 15 pounds. 463. J01 AMG Which will weigh the least? A. 35 parts of dry air and 65 parts of water vapor. B. 50 parts of dry air and 50 parts of water vapor. C. 98 parts of dry air and 2 parts of water vapor. 464. J01 AMG Which is the ratio of the water vapor actually present in the atmosphere to the amount that would be present if the air were saturated at the prevailing temperature and pressure? A. Relative humidity. B. Dewpoint. C. Absolute humidity. 465. J01 AMG The speed of sound in the atmosphere A. changes with a change