Version: 013 2/21/2002 Bank: (Powerplant - Aviation Mechanic) Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank The FAA computer-assisted testing system is supported by a series of supplement publications. These publications, available through several aviation publishers, include the graphics, legends, and maps that are needed to successfully respond to certain test items. Please download the file Supplements.pdf at the Internet address of http://afs600.faa.gov/ for a complete list of the associated supplement books. Please Note: Subject matter codes appear above each item. 1. A01 AMP Which statement is true regarding bearings used in high powered reciprocating aircraft engines? A. The outer race of a single row, self aligning ball bearing will always have a radius equal to the radius of the balls. B. There is less rolling friction when ball bearings are used than when roller bearings are employed. C. Crankshaft bearings are generally of the ball-type due to their ability to withstand extreme loads without overheating. 2. A01 AMP A condition that can occur in radial engines but is unlikely to occur in horizontally opposed engines is A. zero valve clearance. B. hydraulic lock. C. valve overlap. 3. A01 AMP Which condition would be the least likely to be caused by failed or failing engine bearings? A. Low oil temperatures. B. High oil temperatures. C. Excessive oil consumption. 4. A01 AMP What is the principal advantage of using propeller reduction gears? A. To enable the propeller RPM to be increased without an accompanying increase in engine RPM. B. To enable the engine RPM to be increased with an accompanying increase in power and allow the propeller to remain at a lower, more efficient RPM. C. To enable the engine RPM to be increased with an accompanying increase in propeller RPM. 5. A01 AMP Which of the following will decrease volumetric efficiency in a reciprocating engine? 1. Full throttle operation. 2. Low cylinder head temperatures. 3. Improper valve timing. 4. Sharp bends in the induction system. 5. High carburetor air temperatures. A. 2, 4, and 5. B. 3, 4, and 5. C. 1, 2, 3, and 4. 6. A01 AMP Which of the following is a characteristic of a thrust bearing used in most radial engines? A. Tapered roller. B. Deep groove ball. C. Double row ball. 7. A01 AMP Which bearing is least likely to be a roller or ball bearing? A. Master rod bearing (radial engine). B. Rocker arm bearing (overhead valve engine). C. Crankshaft main bearing (radial engine). 8. A01 AMP The operating temperature valve clearance of a radial engine as compared to cold valve clearance is A. less. B. greater. C. the same. 9. A01 AMP A nine cylinder engine with a bore of 5.5 inches and a stroke of 6 inches will have a total piston displacement of A. 1,425 cubic inches. B. 1,283 cubic inches. C. 740 cubic inches. 10. A01 AMP The five events of a four stroke cycle engine in the order of their occurrence are A. intake, ignition, compression, power, exhaust. B. intake, compression, ignition, power, exhaust. C. intake, power, compression, ignition, exhaust. 11. A02 AMP The primary concern in establishing the firing order for an opposed engine is to A. keep power impulses on adjacent cylinders as far apart as possible in order to obtain the greatest mechanical efficiency. B. provide for balance and eliminate vibration to the greatest extent possible. C. keep the power impulses on adjacent cylinders as close as possible in order to obtain the greatest mechanical efficiency. 12. A02 AMP If fuel/air ratio is proper and ignition timing is correct, the combustion process should be completed A. when the exhaust valve opens at the end of the power stroke. B. just after top center at the beginning of the power stroke. C. 20 to 30° before top center at the end of the compression stroke. 13. A02 AMP Grinding the valves of a reciprocating engine to a feather edge is likely to result in A. normal operation and long life. B. excessive valve clearance. C. preignition and burned valves. 14. A02 AMP Which statement is correct regarding engine crankshafts? A. Moveable counterweights are designed to resonate at the natural frequency of the crankshaft. B. Moveable counterweights serve to reduce the dynamic vibrations in an aircraft reciprocating engine. C. Moveable counterweights serve to reduce the torsional vibrations in an aircraft reciprocating engine. 15. A02 AMP On which strokes are both valves on a four-stroke cycle reciprocating aircraft engine open? A. Exhaust and intake. B. Power and exhaust. C. Intake and compression. 16. A02 AMP Master rod bearings are generally what type? A. Roller. B. Ball. C. Plain. 17. A02 AMP The actual power delivered to the propeller of an aircraft engine is called A. brake horsepower. B. indicated horsepower. C. friction horsepower. 18. A02 AMP Cam ground pistons are installed in some aircraft engines to A. provide a better fit at operating temperatures. B. act as a compensating feature so that a compensated magneto is not required. C. equalize the wear on all pistons. 19. A02 AMP Using the following information, determine how many degrees the crankshaft will rotate with both the intake and exhaust valves seated. Intake opens 15° BTDC. Exhaust opens 70° BBDC. Intake closes 45° ABDC. Exhaust closes 10° ATDC. A. 290°. B. 25°. C. 245°. 20. A02 AMP Some aircraft engine manufacturers equip their product with choked or taper-ground cylinders in order to A. flex the rings slightly during operation and reduce the possibility of the rings sticking in the grooves. B. increase the compression pressure for starting purposes. C. provide a straight cylinder bore at operating temperatures. 21. A02 AMP An aircraft reciprocating engine using hydraulic valve lifters is observed to have no clearance in its valve-operating mechanism after the minimum inlet oil and cylinder head temperatures for takeoff have been reached. When can this condition be expected? A. When the lifters become deflated. B. As a result of carbon and sludge becoming trapped in the lifter and restricting its motion. C. During normal operation. 22. A02 AMP What tool is generally used to measure the crankshaft rotation in degrees? A. Prop Protractor. B. Dial indicator. C. Timing disk. 23. A02 AMP If an engine with a stroke of 6 inches is operated at 2,000 RPM, the piston movement within the cylinder will be A. at maximum velocity around TDC. B. constant during the entire 360° of crankshaft travel. C. at maximum velocity 90° after TDC. 24. A02 AMP If the intake valve is opened too early in the cycle of operation of a four-stroke cycle engine, it may result in A. engine kickback. B. backfiring into the induction system. C. improper scavenging of exhaust gases. 25. A02 AMP Some cylinder barrels are hardened by A. tempering. B. nitriding. C. shot peening. 26. A02 AMP Which statement is correct regarding a four stroke cycle aircraft engine? A. The intake valve closes on the intake stroke. B. The intake valve closes on the compression stroke. C. The exhaust valve opens on the exhaust stroke. 27. A02 AMP On which part of the cylinder walls of a normally operating engine will the greatest amount of wear occur? A. Near the top of the cylinder. B. Near the center of the cylinder where piston velocity is greatest. C. Wear is normally evenly distributed. 28. A02 AMP During overhaul, reciprocating engine exhaust valves are checked for stretch A. with a suitable inside spring caliper. B. with a contour or radius gauge. C. by placing the valve on a surface plate and measuring its length with a vernier height gauge. 29. A02 AMP When is the fuel/air mixture ignited in a conventional reciprocating engine? A. When the piston reaches top dead center on the compression stroke. B. When the piston has reached top dead center of the intake stroke. C. Shortly before the piston reaches the top of the compression stroke. 30. A02 AMP Ignition occurs at 28° BTDC on a certain four-stroke cycle engine, and the intake valve opens at 15° BTDC. How many degrees of crankshaft travel after ignition does the intake valve open? (Consider one cylinder only.) A. 373°. B. 347°. C. 707°. 31. A02 AMP What is the purpose of the safety circlet installed on some valve stems? A. To hold the valve spring retaining washer in position. B. To prevent valves from falling into the combustion chamber. C. To hold the valve guide in position. 32. A02 AMP Valve overlap is defined as the number of degrees of crankshaft travel A. between the closing of the intake valve and the opening of the exhaust valve. B. during which both valves are off their seats. C. during which both valves are on their seats. 33. A02 AMP The valve clearance of an engine using hydraulic lifters, when the lifters are completely flat, or empty, should not exceed A. a specified amount below zero. B. 0.00 inch. C. a specified amount above zero. 34. A02 AMP How many of the following are factors in establishing the maximum compression ratio limitations of an aircraft engine? 1. Detonation characteristics of the fuel used. 2. Design limitations of the engine. 3. Degree of supercharging. 4. Spark plug reach. A. Two. B. Four. C. Three. 35. A02 AMP Full floating piston pins are those which allow motion between the pin and A. the piston. B. both the piston and the small end of the connecting rod. C. both the piston and the large end of the connecting rod. 36. A02 AMP The primary purpose in setting proper valve timing and overlap is to A. obtain the best volumetric efficiency and lower cylinder operating temperatures. B. permit the best possible charge of fuel/air mixture into the cylinders. C. gain more thorough exhaust gas scavenging. 37. A02 AMP If the hot clearance is used to set the valves when the engine is cold, what will occur during operation of the engine? A. The valves will open early and close late. B. The valves will open early and close early. C. The valves will open late and close early. 38. A02 AMP The purpose of two or more valve springs in aircraft engines is to A. eliminate valve spring surge. B. equalize side pressure on the valve stems. C. equalize valve face loading. 39. A02 AMP During overhaul, the disassembled parts of an engine are usually degreased with some form of mineral spirits solvent rather than water mixed degreasers primarily because A. water-mixed degreasers cause corrosion. B. solvent degreasers are much more effective. C. water mixed degreaser residues may cause engine oil contamination in the overhauled engine. 40. A02 AMP Why does the smoothness of operation of an engine increase with a greater number of cylinders? A. The power impulses are spaced farther apart. B. The power impulses are spaced closer together. C. The engine has larger counterbalance weights. 41. A02 AMP Compression ratio is the ratio between the A. piston travel on the compression stroke and on the intake stroke. B. cylinder volume with piston at bottom dead center and at top dead center. C. combustion chamber pressure on the combustion stroke and on the exhaust stroke. 42. A02 AMP If the crankshaft runout readings on the dial indicator are plus .002 inch and minus .003 inch, the runout is A. plus .001 inch. B. .005 inch. C. minus .001 inch. 43. A02 AMP (1) Cast iron piston rings may be used in chrome plated cylinders. (2) Chrome plated rings may be used in plain steel cylinders. Regarding the above statements, A. only No. 1 is true. B. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. C. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. 44. A02 AMP How is proper end-gap clearance on new piston rings assured during the overhaul of an engine? A. By accurately measuring and matching the outside diameter of the rings with the inside diameter of the cylinders. B. By using rings specified by the engine manufacturer. C. By placing the rings in the cylinder and measuring the end-gap with a feeler gauge. 45. A02 AMP The volume of a cylinder equals 70 cubic inches when the piston is at bottom center. When the piston is at the top of the cylinder, the volume equals 10 cubic inches. What is the compression ratio? A. 1:7. B. 7:10. C. 7:1. 46. A02 AMP When cleaning aluminum and magnesium engine parts, it is inadvisable to soak them in solutions containing soap because A. some of the soap will become impregnated in the surface of the material and subsequently cause engine oil contamination and foaming. B. the parts can be destroyed by dissimilar metal electrolytic action if they are placed together in the solution for more than a few minutes. C. the soap can chemically alter the metals causing them to become more susceptible to corrosion. 47. A03 AMP What is the purpose of a power check on a reciprocating engine? A. To determine satisfactory performance. B. To check magneto drop. C. To determine if the fuel/air mixture is adequate. 48. A03 AMP What will be the likely result if the piston ring gaps happen to be aligned when performing a differential pressure compression check on a cylinder? A. A worn or defective ring(s) indication. B. Little or no effect. C. The rings will not be seated. 49. A03 AMP Which of the following will be caused by excessive valve clearance of a cylinder on a reciprocating aircraft engine? A. Reduced valve overlap period. B. A power increase by shortening the exhaust event. C. Intake and exhaust valves will open early and close late. 50. A03 AMP Which of the following would indicate a general weak engine condition when operated with a fixed pitch propeller or test club? A. Lower than normal static RPM, full throttle operation. B. Lower than normal manifold pressure for any given RPM. C. Manifold pressure lower at idle RPM than at static RPM. 51. A03 AMP What is required by 14 CFR Part 43 Appendix D when performing an annual/ 100-hour inspection on a reciprocating engine aircraft? A. Cylinder compression check. B. Magneto timing check. C. Valve clearance check. 52. A03 AMP After spark plugs from an opposed engine have been serviced, in what position should they be reinstalled? A. Next in firing order to the one from which they were removed. B. Next in firing order to the one from which they were removed and swapped bottom to top. C. Swapped bottom to top. 53. A03 AMP As the pressure is applied during a reciprocating engine compression check using a differential pressure tester, what would a movement of the propeller in the direction of engine rotation indicate? A. The piston was on compression stroke. B. The piston was on exhaust stroke. C. The piston was positioned past top dead center. 54. A03 AMP Excessive valve clearance results in the valves opening A. late and closing early. B. late and closing late. C. early and closing late. 55. A03 AMP During routine inspection of a reciprocating engine, a deposit of small, bright, metallic particles which do not cling to the magnetic drain plug is discovered in the oil sump and on the surface of the oil filter. This condition A. is normal in engines utilizing plain type bearings and aluminum pistons and is not cause for alarm. B. may be a result of abnormal plain type bearing wear and is cause for further investigation. C. is probably a result of ring and cylinder wall wear and is cause for engine removal and/or overhaul. 56. A03 AMP A characteristic of dyna focal engine mounts as applied to aircraft reciprocating engines is that the A. shock mounts point toward the engine's center of gravity. B. shock mounts eliminate the torsional flexing of the powerplant. C. engine attaches to the shock mounts at the engine's center of gravity. 57. A03 AMP If metallic particles are found in the oil filter during an inspection, A. the cause should be identified and corrected before the aircraft is released for flight. B. it is an indication of normal engine wear unless the particles are nonferrous. C. it is an indication of normal engine wear unless the deposit exceeds a specified amount. 58. A03 AMP If the oil pressure gauge fluctuates over a wide range from zero to normal operating pressure, the most likely cause is A. low oil supply. B. broken or weak pressure relief valve spring. C. air lock in the scavenge pump intake. 59. A03 AMP What special procedure must be followed when adjusting the valves of an engine equipped with a floating cam ring? A. Adjust valves when the engine is hot. B. Eliminate cam bearing clearance when making valve adjustment. C. Adjust all exhaust valves before intake valves. 60. A03 AMP Excessive valve clearances will cause the duration of valve opening to A. decrease for both intake and exhaust valves. B. decrease for intake valves and increase for exhaust valves. C. increase for both intake and exhaust valves. 61. A03 AMP What does valve overlap promote? A. A backflow of gases across the cylinder. B. Lower intake manifold pressure and temperatures. C. Better scavenging and cooling characteristics. 62. A03 AMP At what speed must a crankshaft turn if each cylinder of a four stroke cycle engine is to be fired 200 times a minute? A. 800 RPM. B. 400 RPM. C. 1,600 RPM. 63. A03 AMP Engine crankshaft runout is usually checked 1. during engine overhaul. 2. during annual inspection. 3. after a "prop strike" or sudden engine stoppage. 4. during 100-hour inspection. A. 1, 2 and 3. B. 1, 3, and 4. C. 1 and 3. 64. A03 AMP Before attempting to start a radial engine that has been shut down for more than 30 minutes, A. turn the ignition switch on before energizing the starter. B. turn the propeller by hand three to four revolutions in the normal direction of rotation to check for liquid lock. C. turn the propeller by hand three or four revolutions in the opposite direction of normal rotation to check for liquid lock. 65. A03 AMP An engine misses in both the right and left positions of the magneto switch. The quickest method for locating the trouble is to A. perform a compression check. B. check for one or more cold cylinders. C. check each spark plug. 66. A03 AMP A hissing sound from the exhaust stacks when the propeller is being pulled through manually indicates A. exhaust valve blow by. B. a cracked exhaust stack. C. worn piston rings. 67. A03 AMP If the oil pressure of a cold engine is higher than at normal operating temperatures, the A. engine's lubrication system is probably operating normally. B. oil system relief valve should be readjusted. C. oil dilution system should be turned on immediately. 68. A03 AMP Which fuel/air mixture will result in the highest engine temperature (all other factors remaining constant)? A. A mixture leaner than a rich best power mixture of .085. B. A mixture leaner than a manual lean mixture of .060. C. A mixture richer than a full rich mixture of .087. 69. A03 AMP If an engine cylinder is to be removed, at what position in the cylinder should the piston be? A. Top dead center. B. Bottom dead center. C. Halfway between top and bottom dead center. 70. A03 AMP The horsepower developed in the cylinders of a reciprocating engine is known as the A. shaft horsepower. B. brake horsepower. C. indicated horsepower. 71. A03 AMP Engine operating flexibility is the ability of the engine to A. deliver maximum horsepower at a specific altitude. B. run smoothly and give the desired performance at all speeds. C. meet exacting requirements of efficiency and low weight per horsepower ratio. 72. A03 AMP Standard aircraft cylinder oversizes usually range from 0.010 inch to 0.030 inch. Oversize on automobile engine cylinders may range up to 0.100 inch. This is because aircraft engine cylinders A. have relatively thin walls and may be nitrided. B. have more limited cooling capacity. C. operate at high temperatures. 73. A03 AMP If the ignition switch is moved from BOTH to either LEFT or RIGHT during an engine ground check, normal operation is usually indicated by a A. slight drop in RPM. B. momentary interruption of both ignition systems. C. large drop in RPM. 74. A03 AMP During ground check an engine is found to be rough running, the magneto drop is normal, and the manifold pressure is higher than normal for any given RPM. The trouble may be caused by A. a dead cylinder. B. several spark plugs fouled on different cylinders. C. a leak in the intake manifold. 75. A03 AMP What is the best indication of worn valve guides? A. High oil consumption. B. Low compression. C. Low oil pressure. 76. A03 AMP By use of a differential pressure compression tester, it is determined that the No. 3 cylinder of a nine cylinder radial engine will not hold pressure after the crankshaft has been rotated 260° from top dead center compression stroke No. 1 cylinder. How can this indication usually be interpreted? A. Exhaust valve blow by. B. A damaged exhaust valve or insufficient exhaust valve clearance. C. A normal indication. 77. A03 AMP When does valve overlap occur in the operation of an aircraft reciprocating engine? A. At the end of the power stroke and the beginning of the exhaust stroke. B. At the end of the compression stroke and the beginning of the power stroke. C. At the end of the exhaust stroke and the beginning of the intake stroke. 78. A03 AMP What is an advantage of using metallic-sodium filled exhaust valves in aircraft reciprocating engines? A. Greater resistance to deterioration at high valve temperatures. B. Reduced valve operating temperatures. C. Increased strength and resistance to cracking. 79. A03 AMP Valve clearance changes on opposed type engines using hydraulic lifters are accomplished by A. push rod replacement. B. rocker arm replacement. C. rocker arm adjustment. 80. A03 AMP What is likely to occur if a reciprocating engine is operated at high power settings before it is properly warmed up? A. Excessive thinning of the engine oil. B. Accelerated oil breakdown and oxidation. C. Oil starvation of bearings and other parts. 81. A04 AMP An increase in manifold pressure with a constant RPM will cause the bearing load in an engine to A. decrease. B. remain relatively constant. C. increase. 82. A04 AMP Direct mechanical push pull carburetor heat control linkages should normally be adjusted so that the stop located on the diverter valve will be contacted A. before the stop at the control lever is reached in the HOT position and after the stop at the control lever is reached in the COLD position. B. after the stop at the control lever is reached in both HOT and COLD positions. C. before the stop at the control lever is reached in both HOT and COLD positions. 83. A04 AMP Reduced air density at high altitude has a decided effect on carburetion, resulting in a reduction of engine power by A. excessively enriching the fuel/air mixture. B. reducing fuel vaporization. C. excessively leaning the fuel/air mixture. 84. A04 AMP Increased water vapor (higher relative humidity) in the incoming air to a reciprocating engine will normally result in which of the following? A. A leaning effect on engines which use non automatic carburetors. B. Increased power output due to increased volumetric efficiency. C. Decreased engine power at a constant RPM and manifold pressure. 85. A04 AMP (1) Preignition is caused by improper ignition timing. (2) Detonation occurs when an area of the combustion chamber becomes incandescent and ignites the fuel/air mixture in advance of normal timed ignition. Regarding the above statements, A. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. B. only No. 1 is true. C. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. 86. A04 AMP Which of the following engine servicing operations generally requires engine pre oiling prior to starting the engine? A. Engine installation. B. Replacement of oil lines. C. Engine oil and filter change. 87. A04 AMP During the inspection of an engine control system in which push pull control rods are used, the threaded rod ends should A. not be adjusted in length for rigging purposes because the rod ends have been properly positioned and staked during manufacture. B. be checked for thread engagement of at least two threads but not more than four threads. C. be checked for the amount of thread engagement by means of the inspection holes. 88. A04 AMP Which of the following conditions would most likely lead to detonation? A. Late ignition timing. B. Use of fuel with too low an octane rating. C. Use of fuel with too high an octane rating. 89. A04 AMP An unsupercharged aircraft reciprocating engine, operated at full throttle from sea level, to 10,000 feet, provided the RPM is unchanged, will A. lose power due to the reduced volume of air drawn into the cylinders. B. lose power due to the reduced density of the air drawn into the cylinders. C. produce constant power due to the same volume of air drawn into the cylinders. 90. A04 AMP Which of the following would most likely cause a reciprocating engine to backfire through the induction system at low RPM operation? A. Clogged derichment valve. B. Idle mixture too rich. C. Lean mixture. 91. A04 AMP How may it be determined that a reciprocating engine with a dry sump is pre oiled sufficiently? A. When the quantity of oil specified by the manufacturer has been pumped into the engine. B. Oil will flow from the engine return line or indicator port. C. The engine oil pressure gauge will indicate normal oil pressure. 92. A04 AMP What is the basic operational sequence for reducing the power output of an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller? A. Reduce the manifold pressure, then the RPM. B. Reduce the RPM, then the manifold pressure. C. Reduce the manifold pressure, then retard the throttle to obtain the correct RPM. 93. A04 AMP Which statement pertaining to fuel/air ratios is true? A. The mixture ratio which gives the best power is richer than the mixture ratio which gives maximum economy. B. The mixture ratio which gives maximum economy may also be designated as best power mixture. C. A rich mixture is faster burning than a normal mixture. 94. A04 AMP Which of these conditions will cause an engine to have an increased tendency to detonate? 1. High manifold pressure. 2. High intake air temperature. 3. Engine overheated. 4. Late ignition timing. A. 1, 4. B. 1, 2, 3, 4. C. 1, 2, 3. 95. A04 AMP When will small induction system air leaks have the most noticeable effect on engine operation? A. At low RPM. B. At maximum continuous and takeoff power settings. C. At high RPM. 96. A04 AMP To reduce the power output of an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller and operating near maximum BMEP, the A. RPM is reduced with the propeller control before the manifold pressure is reduced with the throttle control. B. manifold pressure is reduced with the propeller control before the RPM is reduced with the throttle control. C. manifold pressure is reduced with the throttle control before the RPM is reduced with the propeller control. 97. A04 AMP One of the best indicators of reciprocating engine combustion chamber problems is A. spark plug condition. B. starting difficulties. C. excessive engine vibration. 98. A04 AMP What could cause excessive pressure buildup in the crankcase of a reciprocating engine? A. Improper warmup operation. B. Plugged crankcase breather. C. An excessive quantity of oil. 99. A04 AMP Excessive valve clearance in a piston engine A. increases valve overlap. B. increases valve opening time. C. decreases valve overlap. 100. A04 AMP To what altitude will a turbo charged engine maintain sea level pressure? A. Service ceiling. B. Critical altitude. C. Pressure altitude. 101. A04 AMP If air is heard coming from the crankcase breather or oil filler during a differential compression check, what is this an indication of? A. Exhaust valve leakage. B. Intake valve leakage. C. Piston ring leakage. 102. A04 AMP One cause of afterfiring in an aircraft engine is A. sticking intake valves. B. an excessively rich mixture. C. an excessively lean mixture. 103. B01 AMP At what point in an axial flow turbojet engine will the highest gas pressures occur? A. At the compressor outlet. B. Within the burner section. C. At the turbine entrance. 104. B01 AMP One function of the nozzle diaphragm in a turbine engine is to? A. Direct the flow of gases to strike the turbine blades at the desired angle. B. Center the fuel spray in the combustion chamber. C. Decrease the velocity of exhaust gases. 105. B01 AMP What is the profile of a turbine engine compressor blade? A. The curvature of the blade root. B. The leading edge of the blade. C. A cutout that reduces blade tip thickness. 106. B01 AMP The fan rotational speed of a dual axial compressor forward fan engine is the same as the A. high pressure compressor. B. low pressure compressor. C. forward turbine wheel. 107. B01 AMP The abbreviation "P" with subscript t7 used in turbine engine terminology means A. the total inlet pressure. B. pressure and temperature at station No. 7. C. the total pressure at station No. 7. 108. B01 AMP The blending of blades and vanes in a turbine engine A. may sometimes be accomplished with the engine installed, ordinarily using power tools. B. is usually accomplished only at engine overhaul. C. should be performed parallel to the length of the blade using smooth contours to minimize stress points. 109. B01 AMP What turbine engine section provides for proper mixing of the fuel and air? A. Combustion section. B. Compressor section. C. Diffuser section. 110. B01 AMP In a gas turbine engine, combustion occurs at a constant A. volume. B. pressure. C. density. 111. B01 AMP Which statement is true regarding jet engines? A. The thrust delivered per pound of air consumed is less at high altitude than at low altitude. B. At the higher engine speeds, thrust increases rapidly with small increases in RPM. C. At the lower engine speeds, thrust increases rapidly with small increases in RPM. 112. B01 AMP Some high volume turboprop and turbojet engines are equipped with two spool or split compressors. When these engines are operated at high altitudes, the A. throttle must be retarded to prevent overspeeding of the high pressure rotor due to the lower density air. B. low pressure rotor will decrease in speed as the compressor load decreases in the lower density air. C. low pressure rotor will increase in speed as the compressor load decreases in the lower density air. 113. B01 AMP Turbine nozzle diaphragms located on the upstream side of each turbine wheel, are used in the gas turbine engine to A. decrease the velocity of the heated gases flowing past this point. B. direct the flow of gases parallel to the vertical line of the turbine blades. C. increase the velocity of the heated gases flowing past this point. 114. B01 AMP Where is the highest gas pressure in a turbojet engine? A. In the entrance of the burner section. B. At the outlet of the tailpipe section. C. At the entrance of the turbine section. 115. B01 AMP An exhaust cone placed aft of the turbine in a jet engine will cause the pressure in the first part of the exhaust duct to A. increase and the velocity to decrease. B. increase and the velocity to increase. C. decrease and the velocity to increase. 116. B01 AMP What is the function of the stator vane assembly at the discharge end of a typical axial flow compressor? A. To increase air swirling motion into the combustion chambers. B. To direct the flow of gases into the combustion chambers. C. To straighten airflow to eliminate turbulence. 117. B01 AMP The turbine section of a jet engine A. increases air velocity to generate thrust forces. B. utilizes heat energy to expand and accelerate the incoming gas flow. C. drives the compressor section. 118. B01 AMP In the dual axial flow or twin spool compressor system, the first stage turbine drives the A. N1 compressor. B. N2 compressor. C. N1 and N2 compressors. 119. B01 AMP During inspection, turbine engine components exposed to high temperatures may only be marked with such materials as allowed by the manufacturer. These materials generally include 1. layout dye. 2. commercial felt tip marker. 3. wax or grease pencil. 4. chalk. 5. graphite lead pencil. A. 2, 4, and 5. B. 1, 2, and 4. C. 1, 3, and 4. 120. B01 AMP When starting a turbine engine, a hung start is indicated if the engine A. exhaust gas temperature exceeds specified limits. B. fails to reach idle RPM. C. RPM exceeds specified operating speed. 121. B01 AMP What are the two basic elements of the turbine section in a turbine engine? A. Hot and cold. B. Stator and rotor. C. Impeller and diffuser. 122. B01 AMP The function of the exhaust cone assembly of a turbine engine is to A. swirl and collect the exhaust gases into a single exhaust jet. B. straighten and collect the exhaust gases into a solid exhaust jet. C. collect the exhaust gases and act as a noise suppressor. 123. B01 AMP What are the two functional elements in a centrifugal compressor? A. Turbine and compressor. B. Impeller and diffuser. C. Bucket and expander. 124. B01 AMP What must be done after the fuel control unit has been replaced on an aircraft gas turbine engine? A. Recalibrate the fuel nozzles. B. Retrim the engine. C. perform a full power engine run to check fuel flow 125. B01 AMP If, during inspection at engine overhaul, ball or roller bearings are found to have magnetism but otherwise have no defects, they A. must be degaussed before use. B. are in an acceptable service condition. C. cannot be used again. 126. B01 AMP A turbine engine compressor which contains vanes on both sides of the impeller is a A. double entry axial flow compressor. B. double entry centrifugal compressor. C. single entry axial flow compressor. 127. B01 AMP What is the first engine instrument indication of a successful start of a turbine engine? A. A rise in the engine fuel flow. B. A rise in oil pressure. C. A rise in the exhaust gas temperature. 128. B01 AMP Some engine manufacturers of twin spool gas turbine engines identify turbine discharge pressure in their maintenance manuals as A. Pt7. B. Tt7. C. Pt2. 129. B01 AMP Who establishes the recommended operating time between overhauls (TBO) of a turbine engine used in general aviation? A. The engine manufacturer. B. The operator (utilizing manufacturer data and trend analysis) working in conjunction with the FAA. C. The FAA. 130. B01 AMP The basic gas turbine engine is divided into two main sections: the cold section and the hot section. (1) The cold section includes the engine inlet, compressor, and turbine sections. (2) The hot section includes the combustor, diffuser, and exhaust sections. Regarding the above statements, A. only No. 2 is true. B. only No. 1 is true. C. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. 131. B01 AMP (1) Welding and straightening of turbine engine rotating airfoils does not require special equipment. (2) Welding and straightening of turbine engine rotating airfoils is commonly recommended by the manufacturer. Regarding the above statements, A. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. B. only No. 1 is true. C. only No. 2 is true. 132. B01 AMP Main bearing oil seals used with turbine engines are usually what type(s)? A. Labyrinth and/or carbon rubbing. B. Teflon and synthetic rubber. C. Labyrinth and/or silicone rubber. 133. B02 AMP How does a dual axial flow compressor improve the efficiency of a turbojet engine? A. The velocity of the air entering the combustion chamber is increased. B. More turbine wheels can be used. C. Higher compression ratios can be obtained. 134. B02 AMP Three types of turbine blades are A. impulse, reaction, and impulse reaction. B. impulse, vector, and impulse-vector. C. reaction, converging, and diverging. 135. B02 AMP Which statements are true regarding aircraft engine propulsion? 1. An engine driven propeller imparts a relatively small amount of acceleration to a large mass of air. 2. Turbojet and turbofan engines impart a relatively large amount of acceleration to a smaller mass of air. 3. In modern turboprop engines, nearly 50 percent of the exhaust gas energy is extracted by turbines to drive the propeller and compressor with the rest providing exhaust thrust. A. 1, 2. B. 1, 2, 3. C. 1, 3. 136. B02 AMP An advantage of the axial flow compressor is its A. low starting power requirements. B. high peak efficiency. C. low weight. 137. B02 AMP What is one purpose of the stator blades in the compressor section of a turbine engine? A. Stabilize the pressure of the airflow. B. Increase the velocity of the airflow. C. Control the direction of the airflow. 138. B02 AMP What is the purpose of the diffuser section in a turbine engine? A. To reduce pressure and increase velocity. B. To convert pressure to velocity. C. To increase pressure and reduce velocity. 139. B02 AMP Where do stress rupture cracks usually appear on turbine blades? A. Along the leading edge, parallel to the edge. B. Across the blade root, parallel to the fir tree. C. Across the leading or trailing edge at a right angle to the edge length. 140. B02 AMP In which type of turbine engine combustion chamber is the case and liner removed and installed as one unit during routine maintenance? A. Can-annular. B. Can. C. Annular. 141. B02 AMP The diffuser section of a jet engine is located between A. the compressor section and the burner section. B. station No. 7 and station No. 8. C. the burner section and the turbine section. 142. B02 AMP When the leading edge of a first stage turbine blade is found to have stress rupture cracks, which of the following should be suspected? A. Overspeed condition. B. Overtemperature condition. C. Faulty cooling shield. 143. B02 AMP Turbine blades are generally more susceptible to operating damage than compressor blades because of A. higher centrifugal loading. B. high pressure and high velocity gas flow. C. exposure to high temperatures. 144. B02 AMP Which of the following is the ultimate limiting factor of turbine engine operation? A. Compressor inlet air temperature. B. Turbine inlet temperature. C. Burner can pressure. 145. B02 AMP The recurrent ingestion of dust or other fine airborne particulates into a turbine engine can result in A. foreign object damage to the compressor section. B. erosion damage to the compressor and turbine sections. C. the need for less frequent abrasive grit cleaning of the engine. 146. B02 AMP Which of the following engine variables is the most critical during turbine engine operation? A. Turbine inlet temperature. B. Compressor inlet air temperature. C. Compressor RPM. 147. B02 AMP Reduced blade vibration and improved airflow characteristics in gas turbines are brought about by A. fir tree blade attachment. B. shrouded turbine rotor blades. C. impulse type blades. 148. B02 AMP Which turbine engine compressor offers the greatest advantages for both starting flexibility and improved high altitude performance? A. Split spool, axial flow. B. Dual stage, centrifugal flow. C. Single spool, axial flow. 149. B02 AMP Jet engine turbine blades removed for detailed inspection must be reinstalled in A. a specified slot 180° away. B. a specified slot 90° away in the direction of rotation. C. the same slot. 150. B02 AMP An advantage of the centrifugal flow compressor is its high A. pressure rise per stage. B. peak efficiency. C. ram efficiency. 151. B02 AMP The highest heat to metal contact in a jet engine is the A. turbine inlet guide vanes. B. turbine blades. C. burner cans. 152. B02 AMP Which two elements make up the axial flow compressor assembly? A. Compressor and manifold. B. Rotor and stator. C. Stator and diffuser. 153. B02 AMP The two types of centrifugal compressor impellers are A. rotor and stator. B. single entry and double entry. C. impeller and diffuser. 154. B02 AMP Between each row of rotating blades in a turbine engine compressor, there is a row of stationary blades which act to diffuse the air. These stationary blades are called A. buckets. B. rotors. C. stators. 155. B02 AMP Standard sea level pressure is A. 29.92" Hg. B. 29.00" Hg. C. 29.29" Hg. 156. B02 AMP Using standard atmospheric conditions, the standard sea level temperature is A. 59 °F. B. 29 °C. C. 59 °C. 157. B02 AMP When aircraft turbine blades are subjected to excessive heat stress, what type of failures would you expect? A. Torsion and tension. B. Bending and torsion. C. Stress rupture. 158. B02 AMP Compressor field cleaning on turbine engines is performed primarily in order to A. prevent engine oil contamination and subsequent engine bearing wear or damage. B. facilitate flight line inspection of engine inlet and compressor areas for defects or FOD. C. prevent engine performance degradation, increased fuel costs, and damage or corrosion to gas path surfaces. 159. B02 AMP Hot section inspections for many modern turbine engines are required A. on a time or cycle basis. B. only when an overtemperature or overspeed has occurred. C. only at engine overhaul. 160. B02 AMP A purpose of the shrouds on the turbine blades of an axial flow engine is to A. reduce vibration. B. increase tip speed. C. reduce air entrance. 161. B02 AMP What should be done initially if a turbine engine catches fire when starting? A. Continue starting attempt in order to blow out the fire. B. Continue engine start rotation and discharge a fire extinguisher into the intake. C. Turn off the fuel and continue engine rotation with the starter. 162. B02 AMP What is the proper starting sequence for a turbojet engine? A. Starter, ignition, fuel. B. Starter, fuel, ignition. C. Ignition, starter, fuel. 163. B02 AMP What is used in turbine engines to aid in stabilization of compressor airflow during low thrust engine operation? A. Variable guide vanes and/or compressor bleed valves. B. Stator vanes and rotor vanes. C. Pressurization and dump valves. 164. B02 AMP In a turbine engine with a dual spool compressor, the low speed compressor A. seeks its own best operating speed. B. always turns at the same speed as the high speed compressor. C. is connected directly to the high speed compressor. 165. B02 AMP Hot spots on the tail cone of a turbine engine are possible indicators of a malfunctioning fuel nozzle or A. an improperly positioned tail cone. B. a faulty combustion chamber. C. a faulty igniter plug. 166. B02 AMP The stator vanes in an axial flow compressor A. direct air into the first stage rotor vanes at the proper angle. B. convert pressure energy into velocity energy. C. convert velocity energy into pressure energy. 167. B02 AMP The velocity of subsonic air as it flows through a convergent nozzle A. increases. B. remains constant. C. decreases. 168. B02 AMP The velocity of supersonic air as it flows through a divergent nozzle A. increases. B. decreases. C. is inversely proportional to the temperature. 169. B02 AMP The pressure of subsonic air as it flows through a convergent nozzle A. remains constant. B. increases. C. decreases. 170. B02 AMP The pressure of supersonic air as it flows through a divergent nozzle A. is inversely proportional to the temperature. B. increases. C. decreases. 171. B02 AMP Anti icing of jet engine air inlets is commonly accomplished by A. engine bleed air ducted through the critical areas. B. electrical heating elements located within the engine air inlet cowling. C. electrical heating elements inside the inlet guide vanes. 172. B02 AMP Generally, when starting a turbine engine, the starter should be disengaged A. when the ignition and fuel system are activated. B. after the engine has reached self-accelerating speed. C. only after the engine has reached full idle RPM. 173. B02 AMP What is the primary advantage of an axial flow compressor over a centrifugal compressor? A. Less expensive. B. Greater pressure ratio. C. High frontal area. 174. B02 AMP The purpose of a bleed valve, located in the beginning stages of the compressor, in an aircraft gas turbine engine is to A. Vent high ram air pressure overboard to prevent a compressor stall. B. vent some of the air overboard to prevent a compressor stall. C. Control excessively high RPM to prevent a compressor stall. 175. B02 AMP What is the major function of the turbine assembly in a turbojet engine? A. Supplies the power to turn the compressor. B. Directs the gases in the proper direction to the tailpipe. C. Increases the temperature of the exhaust gases. 176. B02 AMP A gas turbine engine comprises which three main sections? A. Compressor, diffuser, and stator. B. Turbine, compressor, and combustion. C. Turbine, combustion, and stator. 177. B02 AMP What type of turbine blade is most commonly used in aircraft jet engines? A. Reaction. B. Impulse. C. Impulse-reaction. 178. B02 AMP What is the primary factor which controls the pressure ratio of an axial flow compressor? A. Compressor inlet temperature. B. Compressor inlet pressure. C. Number of stages in compressor. 179. B02 AMP The non-rotating axial-flow compressor airfoils in an aircraft gas turbine engine, are called A. stator vanes. B. pressurization vanes. C. bleed vanes. 180. B02 AMP (1) In a turbine engine axial flow compressor, each consecutive pair of rotor and stator blades constitutes a pressure stage. (2) In a turbine engine axial flow compressor, the number of rows of stages is determined by the amount of air and total pressure rise required. Regarding the above statements, A. only No. 2 is true. B. only No. 1 is true. C. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. 181. B02 AMP The air passing through the combustion chamber of a turbine engine is A. speeded up and heated by the action of the turbines. B. entirely combined with fuel and burned. C. used to support combustion and to cool the engine. 182. B02 AMP The procedure for removing the accumulation of dirt deposits on compressor blades is called A. the soak method. B. the purging process. C. field cleaning. 183. B02 AMP Which of the following may be used to accomplish internal inspection of an assembled turbine engine? 1. Infrared photography. 2. Ultrasound. 3. A borescope. 4. Fluorescent penetrant and ultraviolet light. A. 1, 2, 3. B. 1, 3. C. 3. 184. B03 AMP What is the possible cause when a turbine engine indicates no change in power setting parameters, but oil temperature is high? A. Engine main bearing distress. B. High scavenge pump oil flow. C. Turbine damage and/or loss of turbine efficiency. 185. B03 AMP Newton's First Law of Motion, generally termed the Law of Inertia, states: A. To every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. B. Every body persists in its state of rest, or of motion in a straight line, unless acted upon by some outside force. C. Force is proportional to the product of mass and acceleration. 186. B03 AMP A turbine engine hot section is particularly susceptible to which kind of damage? A. Scoring. B. Cracking. C. Galling. 187. B03 AMP Dirt particles in the air being introduced into the compressor of a turbine engine will form a coating on all but which of the following? A. Turbine blades. B. Casings. C. Inlet guide vanes. 188. B03 AMP Severe rubbing of turbine engine compressor blades will usually cause A. galling. B. bowing. C. cracking. 189. B03 AMP Which of the following influences the operation of an automatic fuel control unit on a turbojet engine? A. Exhaust gas temperature. B. Burner pressure. C. Mixture control position. 190. B03 AMP If a turbine engine is unable to reach takeoff EPR before its EGT limit is reached, this is an indication that the A. compressor may be contaminated or damaged. B. fuel control must be replaced. C. EGT controller is out of adjustment. 191. B03 AMP The Brayton cycle is known as the constant A. mass cycle. B. temperature cycle. C. pressure cycle. 192. B03 AMP Continued and/or excessive heat and centrifugal force on turbine engine rotor blades is likely to cause A. creep. B. profile. C. galling. 193. B03 AMP If the RPM of an axial flow compressor remains constant, the angle of attack of the rotor blades can be changed by A. changing the velocity of the airflow. B. changing the compressor diameter. C. increasing the pressure ratio. 194. B03 AMP The compression ratio of an axial flow compressor is a function of the A. number of compressor stages. B. air inlet velocity. C. rotor diameter. 195. B03 AMP Which of the following variables affect the inlet air density of a turbine engine? 1. Speed of the aircraft. 2. Compression ratio. 3. Turbine inlet temperature. 4. Altitude of the aircraft. 5. Ambient temperature. 6. Turbine and compressor efficiency. A. 1, 3, 6. B. 4, 5, 6. C. 1, 4, 5. 196. B03 AMP Why do some turbine engines have more than one turbine wheel attached to a single shaft? A. To help stabilize the pressure between the compressor and the turbine. B. To extract more power from the exhaust gases than a single wheel can absorb. C. To facilitate balancing of the turbine assembly. 197. B03 AMP The exhaust section of a turbine engine is designed to A. increase temperature, therefore increasing velocity. B. impart a high exit velocity to the exhaust gases. C. decrease temperature, therefore decreasing pressure. 198. B03 AMP Which of the following types of combustion sections are used in aircraft turbine engines? A. Can, multiple can, and variable. B. Multiple can, annular, and can-annular. C. Annular, variable, and cascade vane. 199. B03 AMP A cool-off period prior to shutdown of a turbine engine is accomplished in order to A. prevent vapor lock in the fuel control and/or fuel lines. B. allow the turbine wheel to cool before the case contracts around it. C. prevent seizure of the engine bearings. 200. B03 AMP What is meant by a shrouded turbine? A. The turbine wheel has a shroud or duct which provides cooling air to the turbine blades. B. The turbine blades are shaped so that their ends form a band or shroud. C. The turbine wheel is enclosed by a protective shroud to contain the blades in case of failure. 201. B03 AMP What term is used to describe a permanent and cumulative deformation of the turbine blades of a turbojet engine? A. Stretch. B. Distortion. C. Creep. 202. B03 AMP At what stage in a turbine engine are gas pressures the greatest? A. Compressor inlet. B. Turbine outlet. C. Compressor outlet. 203. B03 AMP In what section of a turbojet engine is the jet nozzle located? A. Exhaust. B. Turbine. C. Combustion. 204. B03 AMP (1) Accumulation of contaminates in the compressor of a turbojet engine reduces aerodynamic efficiency of the blades. (2) Two common methods for removing dirt deposits from turbojet engine compressor blades are a fluid wash and an abrasive grit blast. Regarding the above statements, A. only No. 2 is true. B. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. C. only No. 1 is true. 205. B03 AMP Hot spots in the combustion section of a turbojet engine are possible indicators of A. faulty igniter plugs. B. malfunctioning fuel nozzles. C. dirty compressor blades. 206. B03 AMP Which of the following can cause fan blade shingling in a turbofan engine? 1. Engine overspeed. 2. Engine overtemperature. 3. Large, rapid throttle movements. 4. FOD. A. 1, 4. B. 1, 2. C. 1, 2, 3, 4. 207. B03 AMP A condition known as "hot streaking" in turbine engines is caused by A. excessive fuel flow. B. a misaligned combustion liner. C. a partially clogged fuel nozzle. 208. C01 AMP (Refer to figure 1.) Determine which portion of the AD is applicable for Model O-690 series engine, serial No. 5863-40 with 283 hours' time in service. A. (B), (1). B. (A). C. (B), (2). 209. C01 AMP A Cessna 180 aircraft has a McCauley propeller Model No. 2A34C50/90A. The propeller is severely damaged in a ground accident, and this model propeller is not available for replacement. Which of the following should be used to find an approved alternate replacement? A. Aircraft Engine and Propeller Specifications/ Type Certificate Data Sheets. B. Summary of Supplemental Type Certificates. C. Aircraft Specifications/Type Certificate Data Sheets. 210. C01 AMP Which of the following is used to monitor the mechanical integrity of the turbines, as well as to check engine operating conditions of a turbine engine? A. Engine pressure ratio. B. Engine oil pressure. C. Exhaust gas temperature. 211. C01 AMP On a reciprocating engine aircraft using a shrouded exhaust muffler system as a source for cabin heat, the exhaust system should be A. visually inspected for any indication of cracks or an operational carbon monoxide detection test should be done. B. removed and the exhaust muffler checked for cracks by using magnetic particle inspection method or an hydrostatic test should be done on the exhaust muffler. C. replaced at each reciprocating engine overhaul by a new or overhauled exhaust system or an hydrostatic test should be accomplished. 212. C01 AMP (1) Airworthiness Directives are Federal Aviation Regulations and must be complied with unless specific exemption is granted. (2) Airworthiness Directives of an emergency nature may require immediate compliance upon receipt. Regarding the above statements, A. only No. 1 is true. B. only No. 2 is true. C. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. 213. C01 AMP Which of the following contains a minimum checklist for 100-hour inspections of engines? A. 14 CFR Part 33 Appendix A. B. 14 CFR Part 43 Appendix D. C. Engine Specifications or Type Certificate Data Sheets. 214. C01 AMP When must an Airworthiness Directive (AD) be complied with after it becomes effective? A. As specified in the AD. B. At the next scheduled overhaul. C. During the next scheduled inspection. 215. C01 AMP Which of the following contains a table that lists the engines to which a given propeller is adaptable? A. Propeller Type Certificate Data Sheets. B. Engine Type Certificate Data Sheets. C. Aircraft Type Certificate Data Sheets. 216. C01 AMP Which of the following component inspections is to be accomplished on a 100-hour inspection? A. Check internal timing of magneto. B. Check cylinder compression. C. Check valve timing. 217. C01 AMP You are performing a 100-hour inspection on an R985-22 aircraft engine. What does the "985" indicate? A. The total piston displacement of the engine. B. The pistons will pump a maximum of 985 cubic inches of air per crankshaft revolution. C. The total piston displacement of one cylinder. 218. C01 AMP Straightening nitrided crankshafts is A. approved by the manufacturer. B. not recommended. C. recommended. 219. C01 AMP The breaking loose of small pieces of metal from coated surfaces, usually caused by defective plating or excessive loads, is called A. chafing. B. flaking. C. brinelling. 220. C01 AMP Each powerplant installed on an airplane with a Standard Airworthiness Certificate must have been A. manufactured under the TSO system. B. type certificated. C. originally certificated for that aircraft. 221. C01 AMP Indentations on bearing races caused by high static loads are known as A. fretting. B. brinelling. C. galling. 222. C01 AMP When inspecting an aircraft reciprocating engine what document is used to determine if the proper magnetos are installed? A. Engine Manufacturer's Maintenance Manual. B. Instruction for continued airworthiness issued by the engine manufacturer. C. Aircraft Engine Specifications or Type Certificate Data Sheets. 223. C01 AMP Which of the following can inspect and approve an engine major repair for return to service? A. Certificated mechanic with a powerplant rating. B. Certificated mechanic with inspection authorization. C. Certificated mechanic with airframe and powerplant ratings. 224. C01 AMP What publication is used for guidance to determine whether a powerplant repair is major or minor? A. Federal Aviation Regulations, Part 43, appendix A. B. Technical Standard Orders. C. Airworthiness Directives. 225. C01 AMP The airworthiness standards for the issue of type certificates for small airplanes with nine or less passenger seats in the normal, utility, and acrobatic categories may be found in the A. Federal Aviation Regulations, Part 23. B. Supplemental Type Certificate. C. Federal Aviation Regulations, Part 21. 226. C01 AMP Which of the following contains approved data for performing a major repair to an aircraft engine? A. Manufacturer's maintenance instructions when FAA approved. B. Supplemental Type Certificates. C. Engine Type Certificate Data Sheets. 227. C01 AMP What maintenance record(s) is/are required following a major repair of an aircraft engine? A. Entries in engine maintenance records and a list of discrepancies for the FAA. B. Entries in the engine maintenance record and FAA Form 337. C. Entry in logbook. 228. C01 AMP A ground incident that results in propeller sudden stoppage would require a crankshaft runout inspection. What publication would be used to obtain crankshaft runout tolerance? A. Type Certificate Data Sheet. B. Current manufacturer's maintenance instructions. C. AC 43.13-1A, Acceptable Methods, Techniques, and Practices Aircraft Inspection and Repair. 229. C01 AMP Select the Airworthiness Directive applicability statement which applies to an IVO 355 engine, serial number T8164, with 2,100 hours' total time and 300 hours since rebuilding. A. Applies to all IVO 355 engines, serial numbers T8000 through T8900 with 2,400 hours or more total time. B. Applies to all IVO 355 engines, serial numbers T8000 through T8300, having less than 2,400 hours' total time. C. Applies to all I.O. and TV10-355 engines, all serial numbers regardless of total time or since overhaul. 230. C01 AMP What publication contains the mandatory replacement time for parts of a turbine engine? A. Airworthiness directive issued by the engine manufacturer. B. Engine Manufacturer's maintenance manual. C. Engine Manufacturer's service instructions. 231. C01 AMP How are discharge nozzles in a fuel injected reciprocating engine identified to indicate the flow range? A. By an identification metal tag attached to the nozzle body. B. By an identification letter stamped on one of the hexes of the nozzle body. C. By color codes on the nozzle body. 232. C01 AMP What section in the instructions for continued airworthiness is FAA approved? A. Engine overhaul manual or section. B. Airworthiness limitations section. C. Engine maintenance manual or section. 233. C01 AMP Which of the following conditions is usually not acceptable to any extent in turbine blades? A. Pits. B. Cracks. C. Dents. 234. C01 AMP (1) Serviceability limits for turbine blades are much more stringent than are those for turbine nozzle vanes. (2) A limited number of small nicks and dents can usually be permitted in any area of a turbine blade. Regarding the above statements, A. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. B. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. C. only No. 1 is true. 235. H01 AMP Which unit most accurately indicates fuel consumption of a reciprocating engine? A. Fuel flowmeter. B. Fuel pressure gauge. C. Electronic fuel quantity indicator. 236. H01 AMP The fuel flowmeter used with a continuous-fuel injection system installed on an aircraft horizontally opposed reciprocating engines measures the fuel pressure drop across the A. metering valve. B. fuel nozzles. C. manifold valve. 237. H01 AMP The principal fault in the pressure type fuel flowmeter indicating system, installed on a horizontally opposed continuous-flow fuel injected aircraft reciprocating engine, is that a plugged fuel injection nozzle will cause a A. lower than normal fuel flow indication. B. higher than normal fuel flow indication. C. normal operation indication. 238. H01 AMP Motor driven impeller and turbine fuel flow transmitters are designed to transmit data A. mechanically. B. using aircraft electrical system power. C. by fuel pressure. 239. H01 AMP The fuel flow indicator rotor and needle for a motor impeller and turbine indicating system is driven by A. a mechanical gear train. B. an electrical signal. C. direct coupling to the motor shaft. 240. H01 AMP On a twin engine aircraft with fuel injected reciprocating engines, one fuel flow indicator reads considerably higher than the other in all engine operating configurations. What is the probable cause of this indication? A. Alternate air door stuck open. B. One or more fuel nozzles are clogged. C. Carburetor icing. 241. H01 AMP The fuel flow indication system used with many fuel-injected opposed engine airplanes utilizes a measure of A. fuel flow mass. B. fuel flow volume. C. fuel pressure. 242. H01 AMP In addition to fuel quantity, a computerized fuel system (CFS) with a totalizer indicator provides indication of how many of the following? 1. Fuel flow rate. 2. Fuel used since reset or initial start up. 3. Fuel time remaining at current power setting. 4. Fuel temperature. A. Four. B. Three. C. Two. 243. H01 AMP The fuel flow indication data sent from motor driven impeller and turbine, and motorless type fuel flow transmitters is a measure of A. fuel mass flow. B. fuel volume flow. C. engine burner pressure drop. 244. H02 AMP A manifold pressure gauge is designed to A. maintain constant pressure in the intake manifold. B. indicate differential pressure between the intake manifold and atmospheric pressure. C. indicate absolute pressure in the intake manifold. 245. H02 AMP Which of the following types of electric motors are commonly used in electric tachometers? A. Direct current, shunt-wound motors. B. Direct current, series wound motors. C. Synchronous motors. 246. H02 AMP Where are the hot and cold junctions located in an engine cylinder temperature indicating system? A. The hot junction is located at the cylinder and the cold junction is located at the instrument. B. Both junctions are located at the cylinder. C. Both junctions are located at the instrument. 247. H02 AMP Basically, the indicator of a tachometer system is responsive to change in A. current flow. B. voltage. C. frequency. 248. H02 AMP Which statement is correct concerning a thermocouple type temperature indicating instrument system? A. It usually contains a balancing circuit in the instrument case to prevent fluctuations of the system voltage from affecting the temperature reading. B. It is a balanced type, variable resistor circuit. C. It requires no external power source. 249. H02 AMP Which statement is true regarding a thermocouple type cylinder head temperature measuring system? A. When the master switch is turned on, a thermocouple indicator will move off scale to the low side. B. The voltage output of a thermocouple system is determined by the temperature difference between the two ends of the thermocouple. C. The resistance required for cylinder head temperature indicators is measured in farads. 250. H02 AMP What basic meter is used to indicate cylinder head temperature in most aircraft? A. Electrodynamometer. B. Galvanometer. C. Thermocouple type meter. 251. H02 AMP Which of the following is a primary engine instrument? A. Tachometer. B. Airspeed indicator. C. Fuel flowmeter. 252. H02 AMP A complete break in the line between the manifold pressure gauge and the induction system will be indicated by the gauge registering A. lower than normal for conditions prevailing. B. prevailing atmospheric pressure. C. zero. 253. H02 AMP Engine oil temperature gauges indicate the temperature of the oil A. entering the oil cooler. B. entering the engine. C. in the oil storage tank. 254. H02 AMP Why do helicopters require a minimum of two synchronous tachometer systems? A. One indicates engine RPM and the other tail rotor RPM. B. One indicates main rotor RPM and the other tail rotor RPM. C. One indicates engine RPM and the other main rotor RPM. 255. H02 AMP If the thermocouple leads were inadvertently crossed at installation, what would the cylinder temperature gauge pointer indicate? A. Normal temperature for prevailing condition. B. Moves off scale on the zero side of the meter. C. Moves off scale on the high side of the meter. 256. H02 AMP A common type of electrically operated oil temperature gauge utilizes A. vapor pressure and pressure switches. B. a thermocouple type circuit. C. either a wheatstone bridge or ratiometer circuit. 257. H02 AMP The indication on a thermocouple-type cylinder head temperature indicator is produced by A. resistance changes in two dissimilar metals. B. a difference in the voltage between two dissimilar metals. C. a current generated by the temperature difference between dissimilar metal hot and cold junctions. 258. H02 AMP (1) Powerplant instrument range markings show whether the current state of powerplant operation is normal, acceptable for a limited time, or unauthorized. (2) Powerplant instrument range markings are based on installed engine operating limits which may not exceed (but are not necessarily equal to) those limits shown on the engine Type Certificate Data Sheet. Regarding the above statements, A. only No. 1 is true. B. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. C. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. 259. H02 AMP Thermocouple leads A. are designed for a specific installation and may not be altered. B. may be installed with either lead to either post of the indicator. C. may be repaired using solderless connectors. 260. H02 AMP (1) Engine pressure ratio (EPR) is a ratio of the exhaust gas pressure to the engine inlet air pressure, and indicates the thrust produced. (2) Engine pressure ratio (EPR) is a ratio of the exhaust gas pressure to the engine inlet air pressure, and indicates volumetric efficiency. Regarding the above statements, A. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. B. only No. 2 is true. C. only No. 1 is true. 261. H02 AMP What unit in a tachometer system sends information to the indicator? A. The two phase ac generator. B. The three phase ac generator. C. The synchronous motor. 262. H02 AMP (1) Generally, when a turbine engine indicates high EGT for a particular EPR (when there is no significant damage), it means that the engine is out of trim. (2) Some turbine powered aircraft use RPM as the primary indicator of thrust produced, others use EPR as the primary indicator. Regarding the above statements, A. only No. 1 is true. B. only No. 2 is true. C. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. 263. H02 AMP Engine pressure ratio is determined by A. dividing engine inlet total pressure by turbine outlet total pressure. B. multiplying engine inlet total pressure by turbine outlet total pressure. C. dividing turbine outlet total pressure by engine inlet total pressure. 264. H02 AMP Jet engine thermocouples are usually constructed of A. iron constantan. B. alumel constantan. C. chromel alumel. 265. H02 AMP Which of the following instrument discrepancies require replacement of the instrument? 1. Red line missing from glass. 2. Glass cracked. 3. Case paint chipped. 4. Will not zero out. 5. Pointer loose on shaft. 6. Mounting screw loose. 7. Leaking at line B nut. 8. Fogged. A. 2, 4, 5, 8. B. 2, 3, 7, 8. C. 1, 2, 4, 7. 266. H02 AMP A Bourdon tube instrument may be used to indicate 1. pressure. 2. temperature. 3. position. 4. quantity. A. 1 and 3. B. 1 and 2. C. 2 and 4. 267. H02 AMP An indication of unregulated power changes that result in continual drift of manifold pressure indication on a turbosuper-charged aircraft engine is know as? A. Bootstrapping B. Waste gate fluctuation C. Overshoot 268. H02 AMP Which of the following instrument conditions is acceptable and does NOT require immediate correction? 1. Red line missing. 2. Pointer loose on shaft. 3. Glass cracked. 4. Mounting screws loose. 5. Case paint chipped. 6. Leaking at line B nut. 7. Will not zero out. 8. Fogged. A. 1. B. 5. C. 4. 269. H02 AMP A change in engine manifold pressure has a direct effect on the A. mean effective cylinder pressure. B. compression ratio. C. piston displacement. 270. H02 AMP What instrument on a gas turbine engine should be monitored to minimize the possibility of a "hot" start? A. RPM indicator. B. Torquemeter. C. Turbine inlet temperature. 271. H02 AMP In regard to using a turbine engine oil analysis program, which of the following is NOT true? A. Generally, an accurate trend forecast may be made after an engine's first oil sample analysis. B. It is best to start an oil analysis program on an engine when it is new. C. A successful oil analysis program should be run over an engine's total operating life so that normal trends can be established. 272. H02 AMP On an aircraft turbine engine, operating at a constant power, the application of engine anti-icing will result in A. a false EPR reading. B. noticeable shift in EPR. C. an increase in EPR. 273. H02 AMP Engine pressure ratio is the total pressure ratio between the A. aft end of the compressor and the aft end of the turbine. B. front of the engine inlet and the aft end of the compressor. C. front of the compressor and the rear of the turbine. 274. H02 AMP What would be the possible cause if a gas turbine engine has high exhaust gas temperature, high fuel flow, and low RPM at all engine power settings? A. Fuel control out of adjustment. B. Turbine damage or loss of turbine efficiency. C. Loose or corroded thermocouple probes for the EGT indicator. 275. H02 AMP What is the primary purpose of the tachometer on an axial compressor turbine engine? A. Monitor engine RPM during cruise conditions. B. Monitor engine RPM during starting and to indicate overspeed conditions. C. It is the most accurate instrument for establishing thrust settings under all conditions. 276. H02 AMP The exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicator on a gas turbine engine provides a relative indication of the A. turbine inlet temperature. B. temperature of the exhaust gases as they pass the exhaust cone. C. exhaust temperature. 277. H02 AMP In a turbine engine, where is the turbine discharge pressure indicator sensor located? A. At a location in the exhaust cone that is determined to be subjected to the highest pressures. B. Immediately aft of the last turbine stage. C. At the aft end of the compressor section. 278. H02 AMP In what units are turbine engine tachometers calibrated? A. Percent of engine pressure ratio. B. Actual engine RPM. C. Percent of engine RPM. 279. H02 AMP Instruments that provide readings of low or negative pressure, such as manifold pressure gauges, are usually what type? A. Bourdon tube. B. Diaphragm or bellows. C. Vane with calibrated spring. 280. H02 AMP Instruments that measure relatively high fluid pressures, such as oil pressure gauges, are usually what type? A. Bourdon tube. B. Vane with calibrated spring. C. Diaphragm or bellows. 281. H02 AMP The RPM indication of a synchronous ac motor tachometer is governed by the generator A. voltage. B. frequency. C. current. 282. H02 AMP The EGT gauge used with reciprocating engines is primarily used to furnish temperature readings in order to A. obtain the best mixture setting for engine cooling. B. obtain the best mixture setting for fuel efficiency. C. prevent engine overtemperature. 283. H02 AMP A red triangle, dot, or diamond mark on an engine instrument face or glass indicates A. the maximum operating limit for all normal operations. B. a restricted operating range. C. the maximum limit for high transients such as starting. 284. I01 AMP Which of the following fire detectors are commonly used in the power section of an engine nacelle? A. CO detectors. B. Rate of temperature rise detectors. C. Smoke detectors. 285. I01 AMP What is the function of a fire detection system? A. To identify the location of a powerplant fire. B. To discharge the powerplant fire extinguishing system at the origin of the fire. C. To activate a warning device in the event of a powerplant fire. 286. I01 AMP (Refer to figure 2.) Determine the fire extinguisher container pressure limits when the temperature is 75 °F. A. 326 minimum and 415 maximum. B. 338 minimum and 424 maximum. C. 330 minimum and 419 maximum. 287. I01 AMP How are most aircraft turbine engine fire extinguishing systems activated? A. Pushrod assembly. B. Manual remote control valve. C. Electrically discharged cartridges. 288. I01 AMP How does carbon dioxide (CO2) extinguish an aircraft engine fire? A. By lowering the temperature to a point where combustion will not take place. B. Contact with the air converts the liquid into snow and gas which smothers the flame. C. The high pressure spray lowers the temperature and blows out the fire. 289. I01 AMP What retains the nitrogen charge and fire extinguishing agent in a high rate of discharge (HRD) container? A. Breakable disk and fusible disk. B. Pressure switch and check tee valve. C. Pressure gauge and cartridge. 290. I01 AMP A continuous loop fire detector is what type of detector? A. Rate of temperature rise detector. B. Spot detector. C. Overheat detector. 291. I01 AMP What is the operating principle of the spot detector sensor in a fire detection system? A. A bimetallic thermoswitch that closes when heated to a high temperature. B. A conventional thermocouple that produces a current flow. C. Resistant core material that prevents current flow at normal temperatures. 292. I01 AMP How is the fire extinguishing agent distributed in the engine section? A. Spray nozzles and perforated tubing. B. Nitrogen pressure and slinger rings. C. Spray nozzles and fluid pumps. 293. I01 AMP Which of the following is the safest fire extinguishing agent to use from a standpoint of toxicity and corrosion hazards? A. Bromotrifluoromethane (Halon 1301). B. Bromochlorodifluoromethane (Halon 1211). C. Dibromodifluoromethane (Halon 1202). 294. I01 AMP What is the principle of operation of the continuous loop fire detector system sensor? A. Core resistance material which prevents current flow at normal temperatures. B. Fuse material which melts at high temperatures. C. A bimetallic thermoswitch which closes when heated to a high temperature. 295. I01 AMP The most satisfactory extinguishing agent for a carburetor or intake fire is A. methyl bromide. B. dry chemical. C. carbon dioxide. 296. I01 AMP The explosive cartridge in the discharge valve of a fire extinguisher container is A. not a life dated unit. B. a life dated unit. C. mechanically fired. 297. I01 AMP Why does one type of Fenwal fire detection system use spot detectors wired in parallel between two separate circuits? A. So that a double fault may exist in the system without sounding a false alarm. B. To provide an installation that is equal to two separate systems: a primary system and a secondary, or back-up system. C. So that a single fault may exist in the system without sounding a false alarm 298. I01 AMP Which of the following fire detection systems measures temperature rise compared to a reference temperature? A. Lindberg continuous element. B. Thermal switch. C. Thermocouple. 299. I01 AMP The pulling out (or down) of an illuminated fire handle in a typical large jet aircraft fire protection system commonly accomplishes what events? A. Closes all firewall shutoff valves, disconnects the generator, and discharges a fire bottle. B. Closes fuel shutoff, closes hydraulic shutoff, closes the oxygen shutoff, disconnects the generator field, and arms the fire-extinguishing system. C. Closes fuel shutoff, closes hydraulic shutoff, disconnects the generator field, and arms the fire extinguishing system. 300. I01 AMP A fire detection system operates on the principle of a buildup of gas pressure within a tube proportional to temperature. Which of the following systems does this statement define? A. Kidde continuous loop system. B. Lindberg continuous element system. C. Thermal switch system. 301. I01 AMP The fire detection system that uses a single wire surrounded by a continuous string of ceramic beads in a tube is the A. Kidde system. B. thermocouple system. C. Fenwal system. 302. I01 AMP The fire detection system that uses two wires imbedded in a ceramic core within a tube is the A. Kidde system. B. Fenwal system. C. Lindberg system. 303. I01 AMP A fuel or oil fire is defined as a A. class C fire. B. class B fire. C. class A fire. 304. I01 AMP A fire detection system that operates on the rate of temperature rise is a A. continuous loop system. B. thermal switch system. C. thermocouple system. 305. I01 AMP A fire involving energized electrical equipment is defined as a A. class B fire. B. class C fire. C. class D fire. 306. I01 AMP Two continuous-loop fire detection systems that will not test due to a broken detector element are the A. thermocouple system and the Lindberg system. B. Kidde system and the Fenwal system. C. Kidde system and the Lindberg system. 307. I01 AMP In a fixed fire-extinguishing system, there are two small lines running from the system and exiting overboard. These line exit ports are covered with a blowout type indicator disc. Which of the following statements is true? A. When the yellow indicator disc is missing, it indicates the fire extinguishing system has been normally discharged. B. When the green indicator disc is missing, it indicates the fire extinguishing system has had a thermal discharge. C. When the red indicator disc is missing, it indicates the fire extinguishing system has been normally discharged. 308. I01 AMP The most satisfactory extinguishing agent for an electrical fire is A. carbon dioxide. B. carbon tetrachloride. C. methyl bromide. 309. I01 AMP Which of the following fire detection systems will detect a fire when an element is inoperative but will not test when the test circuit is energized? A. The Kidde system and the Fenwal system. B. The thermocouple system and the Lindberg system. C. The Kidde system and the thermocouple system. 310. I01 AMP Which of the following fire detection systems uses heat in the normal testing of the system? A. The thermocouple system and the Fenwal system. B. The Kidde system and the Fenwal system. C. The thermocouple system and the Lindberg system. 311. I01 AMP After a fire is extinguished, or overheat condition removed in aircraft equipped with a Systron-Donner fire detector, the detection system A. must be manually reset. B. automatically resets. C. sensing component must be replaced. 312. I01 AMP The use of water on class D fires A. will cause the fire to burn more violently and can cause explosions. B. has no effect. C. is most effective if sprayed in a fine mist. 313. I01 AMP For fire detection and extinguishing purposes, aircraft powerplant areas are divided into fire zones based on A. hot and cold sections of the engine. B. the volume and smoothness of the airflow through engine compartments. C. engine type and size. 314. I01 AMP (Refer to figure 3.) What are the fire-extinguisher container pressure limits when the temperature is 50 F? A. 475 - 625 PSIG. B. 425 - 575 PSIG. C. 435 - 605 PSIG. 315. J01 AMP What device is used to convert alternating current, which has been induced into the loops of the rotating armature of a dc generator, to direct current? A. An inverter. B. A commutator. C. A rectifier. 316. J01 AMP A certain direct current series motor mounted within an aircraft draws more amperes during start than when it is running under its rated load. The most logical conclusion that may be drawn is A. the brushes are floating at operating RPM because of weak brush springs. B. the starting winding is shorted. C. the condition is normal for this type of motor. 317. J01 AMP The stationary field strength in a direct current generator is varied A. because of generator speed. B. by the reverse-current relay. C. according to the load requirements. 318. J01 AMP What type of electric motor is generally used with a direct-cranking engine starter? A. Direct current, shunt-wound motor. B. Synchronous motor. C. Direct current, series-wound motor. 319. J01 AMP Upon what does the output frequency of an ac generator (alternator) depend? A. The speed of rotation and the number of field poles. B. The speed of rotation, the strength of the field, and the number of field poles. C. The speed of rotation and the strength of the field. 320. J01 AMP A high surge of current is required when a dc electric motor is first started. As the speed of the motor increases, A. the counter emf builds up and opposes the applied emf, thus reducing the current flow through the armature. B. the applied emf increases proportionally. C. the counter emf decreases proportionally. 321. J01 AMP Alternators (ac generators) that are driven by a constant-speed drive (CSD) mechanism are used to regulate the alternator to a constant A. voltage output. B. hertz output. C. amperage output. 322. J01 AMP What is used to polish commutators or slip rings? A. Very fine sandpaper. B. Aluminum oxide or garnet paper. C. Crocus cloth or fine oilstone. 323. J01 AMP If a generator is malfunctioning, its voltage can be reduced to residual by actuating the A. rheostat. B. generator master switch. C. master solenoid. 324. J01 AMP If the points in a vibrator type voltage regulator stick in the closed position while the generator is operating, what will be the probable result? A. Generator output voltage will decrease. B. Generator output voltage will not be affected. C. Generator output voltage will increase. 325. J01 AMP Why is a constant speed drive used to control the speed of some aircraft engine driven generators? A. So that the frequency of the alternating current output will remain constant. B. So that the voltage output of the generator will remain within limits. C. To eliminate uncontrolled surges of current to the electrical system. 326. J01 AMP According to the electron theory of the flow of electricity, when a properly functioning dc alternator and voltage regulating system is charging an aircraft's battery, the direction of current flow through the battery A. is into the negative terminal and out the positive terminal. B. is into the positive terminal and out the negative terminal. C. cycles back and forth with the number of cycles per second being controlled by the rotational speed of the alternator. 327. J01 AMP Aircraft that operate more than one generator connected to a common electrical system must be provided with A. individual generator switches that can be operated from the cockpit during flight. B. automatic generator switches that operate to isolate any generator whose output is less than 80 percent of its share of the load. C. an automatic device that will isolate nonessential loads from the system if one of the generators fails. 328. J01 AMP The most effective method of regulating aircraft direct current generator output is to vary, according to the load requirements, the A. number of rotating armature loops in use. B. strength of the stationary field. C. generator speed. 329. J01 AMP Electric motors are often classified according to the method of connecting the field coils and armature. Aircraft engine starter motors are generally of which type? A. Series. B. Compound. C. Shunt (parallel). 330. J01 AMP As the generator load is increased (within its rated capacity), the voltage will A. decrease and the amperage output will increase. B. remain constant and the amperage output will increase. C. remain constant and the amperage output will decrease. 331. J01 AMP As the flux density in the field of a dc generator increases and the current flow to the system increases, the A. generator voltage decreases. B. force required to turn the generator increases. C. generator amperage decreases. 332. J01 AMP What is the purpose of a reverse current cutout relay? A. It prevents fluctuations of generator voltage. B. It opens the main generator circuit whenever the generator voltage drops below the battery voltage. C. It eliminates the possibility of reversed polarity of the generator output current. 333. J01 AMP Generator voltage will not build up when the field is flashed and solder is found on the brush cover plate. These are most likely indications of A. excessive brush arcing. B. an open armature. C. armature shaft bearings overheating. 334. J01 AMP Why is it unnecessary to flash the field of the exciter on a brushless alternator? A. Brushless alternators do not have exciters. B. Permanent magnets are installed in the main field poles. C. The exciter is constantly charged by battery voltage. 335. J01 AMP One way that the automatic ignition relight systems are activated on gas turbine engines is by a A. sensing switch located in the tailpipe. B. drop in compressor discharge pressure. C. drop in fuel flow. 336. J01 AMP How are the rotor windings of an aircraft alternator usually excited? A. By a variable direct current. B. By a constant ac voltage from the battery. C. By a constant ac voltage. 337. J01 AMP What precaution is usually taken to prevent electrolyte from freezing in a lead acid battery? A. Keep the battery fully charged. B. Place the aircraft in a hangar. C. Remove the battery and keep it under constant charge. 338. J01 AMP What is the ampere-hour rating of a storage battery that is designed to deliver 45 amperes for 2.5 hours? A. 90.0 ampere hour. B. 45.0 ampere hour. C. 112.5 ampere hour. 339. J01 AMP How many hours will a 140 ampere-hourbattery deliver 15 amperes? A. 9.33 hours. B. 1.40 hours. C. 14.0 hours. 340. J01 AMP What is a basic advantage of using ac for electrical power for a large aircraft? A. AC systems operate at higher voltage than dc systems and therefore use more current and can use smaller and lighter weight wiring. B. AC systems operate at lower voltage than dc systems and therefore use less current and can use smaller and lighter weight wiring. C. AC systems operate at higher voltage than dc systems and therefore use less current and can use smaller and lighter weight wiring. 341. J01 AMP What are two types of ac motors that are used to produce a relatively high torque? A. Shunt field and single phase. B. Three phase induction and capacitor start. C. Shaded pole and shunt field. 342. J01 AMP (1) Alternators are rated in volt amps, which is a measure of the apparent power being produced by the generator. (2) Alternating current has the advantage over direct current in that its voltage and current can easily be stepped up or down. Regarding the above statements, A. only No. 2 is true. B. only No. 1 is true. C. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. 343. J01 AMP What is the frequency of most aircraft alternating current? A. 400 Hertz. B. 115 Hertz. C. 60 Hertz. 344. J01 AMP The reason for flashing the field in a generator is to A. increase generator capacity. B. remove excessive deposits. C. restore correct polarity and/or residual magnetism to the field poles. 345. J01 AMP The part of a dc alternator power system that prevents reverse flow of current from the battery to the alternator is the A. voltage regulator. B. rectifier. C. reverse current relay. 346. J01 AMP The generating system of an aircraft charges the battery by using A. constant voltage and constant current. B. constant voltage and varying current. C. constant current and varying voltage. 347. J01 AMP The constant current method of charging a ni-cad battery A. is the method most effective in maintaining cell balance. B. will bring it up to fully charged in the shortest amount of time. C. will lead to cell imbalance over a period of time. 348. J02 AMP (Refer to figure 4.) The following data concerning the installation of an electrical unit is known: current requirements for continuous operation - 11 amperes; measured cable length - 45 feet; system voltage - 28 volts (do not exceed 1 volt drop); cable in conduit and bundles. What is the minimum size copper electrical cable that may be selected? A. No. 14. B. No. 10. C. No. 12. 349. J02 AMP Which of the following aircraft circuits does NOT contain a fuse/circuit breaker? A. Starter circuit. B. Generator circuit. C. Air conditioning circuit. 350. J02 AMP The maximum number of terminals that may be connected to any one terminal stud in an aircraft electrical system is A. four. B. two. C. three. 351. J02 AMP What is the maximum number of bonding jumper wires that may be attached to one terminal grounded to a flat surface? A. Three. B. Two. C. Four. 352. J02 AMP As a general rule, starter brushes are replaced when they are approximately A. two-thirds their original length. B. one half their original length. C. one-third their original length. 353. J02 AMP When installing an electrical switch, under which of the following conditions should the switch be derated from its nominal current rating? A. Capacitive circuits. B. Conductive circuits. C. Direct current motor circuits. 354. J02 AMP The resistance of the current return path through the aircraft is always considered negligible, provided the A. voltage drop across the circuit is checked. B. structure is adequately bonded. C. generator is properly grounded. 355. J02 AMP In order to reduce the possibility of ground shorting the circuits when the connectors are separated for maintenance, the AN and MS electrical connectors should be installed with the A. pin section on the positive side of the electrical circuit. B. socket section on the ground side of the electrical circuit. C. pin section on the ground side of the electrical circuit. 356. J02 AMP When does current flow through the coil of a solenoid operated electrical switch? A. Continually, as long as the aircraft's electrical system master switch is on. B. Continually, as long as the control circuit is complete. C. Only until the movable points contact the stationary points. 357. J02 AMP When a 28 volt, 75 ampere generator is installed on an aircraft, an electrical load analysis ground check is performed and it is determined that the battery is furnishing 57 amperes to the system, with all electrical equipment operating. This indicates A. the load exceeds the maximum system percentage capacity. B. that the generator load will exceed the generator limit. C. the load will be within the generator load limit. 358. J02 AMP What type of lubricant may be used to aid in pulling electrical wires or cables through conduits? A. Silicone grease. B. Soapstone talc. C. Rubber lubricant. 359. J02 AMP Which of the following is regulated in a generator to control its voltage output? A. Speed of the armature. B. Number of windings in the armature. C. The strength of the field. 360. J02 AMP Bonding jumpers should be designed and installed in such a manner that they A. are not subjected to flexing by relative motion of airframe or engine components. B. prevent buildup of a static electrical charge between the airframe and the surrounding atmosphere. C. provide a low electrical resistance in the ground circuit. 361. J02 AMP When the starter switch to the aircraft gas turbine engine starter-generator is energized and the engine fails to rotate, one of the probable causes would be the A. undercurrent solenoid contacts are defective. B. power lever switch is defective. C. starter solenoid is defective. 362. J02 AMP Arcing at the brushes and burning of the commutator of a motor may be caused by A. low mica. B. excessive brush spring tension. C. weak brush springs. 363. J02 AMP The maximum allowable voltage drop between the generator and the bus bar is A. 1 percent of the regulated voltage. B. less than the voltage drop permitted between the battery and the bus bar. C. 2 percent of the regulated voltage. 364. J02 AMP ON-OFF two position engine electrical switches should be installed A. so that the toggle will move in the same direction as the desired motion of the unit controlled. B. under a guard. C. so the ON position is reached by a forward or upward motion. 365. J02 AMP When selecting an electrical switch for installation in an aircraft circuit utilizing a direct current motor, A. a derating factor should be applied. B. only switches with screw type terminal connections should be used. C. a switch designed for dc should be chosen. 366. J02 AMP When installing electrical wiring parallel to a fuel line, the wiring should be A. above the fuel line. B. in a non-conductive fire-resistant sleeve. C. in metal conduit. 367. J02 AMP (Refer to figure 4.) In a 28-volt system, what is the maximum continuous current that can be carried by a single No. 10 copper wire 25 feet long, routed in free air? A. 35 amperes. B. 20 amperes. C. 28 amperes. 368. J02 AMP What speed must an eight-pole ac generator turn to produce 400-Hertz ac? A. 1,200 RPM. B. 6,000 RPM. C. 400 RPM. 369. J02 AMP Which Federal Aviation Regulation specifies that each resettable circuit protective device requires a manual operation to restore service after the device has interrupted the circuit? A. 14 CFR Part 43. B. 14 CFR Part 91. C. 14 CFR Part 23. 370. J02 AMP Which Federal Aviation Regulation requirement prevents the use of automatic reset circuit breakers? A. 14 CFR Part 21. B. 14 CFR Part 23. C. 14 CFR Part 91. 371. J02 AMP The time/current capacities of a circuit breaker or fuse must be A. above those of the associated conductor. B. equal to those of the associated conductor. C. below those of the associated conductor. 372. J02 AMP (1) Most modern aircraft use circuit breakers rather than fuses to protect their electrical circuits. (2) Federal Aviation Regulations Part 23 requires that all electrical circuits incorporate some form of circuit protective device. Regarding the above statements, A. only No. 1 is true. B. only No. 2 is true. C. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. 373. J02 AMP Electrical switches are rated according to the A. voltage and the current they can control. B. resistance and the temperature rating. C. resistance rating of the switch and the wiring. 374. J02 AMP Electrical circuit protection devices are installed primarily to protect the A. wiring. B. units. C. switches. 375. J02 AMP (1) Electrical circuit protection devices are rated based on the amount of current that can be carried without overheating the wiring insulation. (2) A "trip free" circuit breaker makes it impossible to manually hold the circuit closed when excessive current is flowing. Regarding the above statements, A. only No. 2 is true. B. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. C. only No. 1 is true. 376. J02 AMP Which of the following Federal Aviation Regulations require that all aircraft using fuses as the circuit protective devices carry ``one spare set of fuses, or three spare fuses of each kind required''? A. 14 CFR Part 43. B. 14 CFR Part 23. C. 14 CFR Part 91. 377. J02 AMP What is the smallest terminal stud allowed for aircraft electrical power systems? A. No. 8. B. No. 6. C. No. 10. 378. J02 AMP A typical barrier type aircraft terminal strip is made of A. layered aluminum impregnated with compound. B. paper base phenolic compound. C. polyester resin and graphite compound. 379. J02 AMP A term commonly used when two or more electrical terminals are installed on a single lug of a terminal strip is A. stacking. B. stepping. C. strapping. 380. J02 AMP (1) Electrical wires larger than 10 gauge use uninsulated terminals. (2) Electrical wires smaller than 10 gauge use uninsulated terminals. Regarding the above statements, A. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. B. only No. 1 is true. C. only No. 2 is true. 381. J02 AMP Aircraft electrical wire size is measured according to the A. Technical Standard Order system. B. American Wire Gauge system. C. Military Specification system. 382. J02 AMP Aircraft copper electrical wire is coated with tin, silver, or nickel in order to A. add strength. B. prevent oxidization. C. improve conductivity. 383. K01 AMP What will be the result of operating an engine in extremely high temperatures using a lubricant recommended by the manufacturer for a much lower temperature? A. The oil pressure will be lower than normal. B. The oil temperature and oil pressure will be higher than normal. C. The oil pressure will be higher than normal. 384. K01 AMP (1) Gas turbine and reciprocating engine oils can be mixed or used interchangeably. (2) Most gas turbine engine oils are synthetic. Regarding the above statements, A. only No. 2 is true. B. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. C. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. 385. K01 AMP The time in seconds required for exactly 60 cubic centimeters of oil to flow through an accurately calibrated orifice at a specific temperature is recorded as a measurement of the oil's A. flash point. B. viscosity. C. specific gravity. 386. K01 AMP Upon what quality or characteristic of a lubricating oil is its viscosity index based? A. Its resistance to flow at a standard temperature as compared to high grade paraffin base oil at the same temperature. B. Its rate of flow through an orifice at a standard temperature. C. Its rate of change in viscosity with temperature change. 387. K01 AMP Compared to reciprocating engine oils, the types of oils used in turbine engines A. are required to carry and disperse a higher level of combustion by-products. B. have less tendency to produce lacquer or coke. C. may permit a somewhat higher level of carbon formation in the engine. 388. K01 AMP The oil used in reciprocating engines has a relatively high viscosity due to A. large clearances and high operating temperatures. B. the relatively high rotational speeds. C. the reduced ability of thin oils to maintain adequate film strength at altitude (reduced atmospheric pressure). 389. K01 AMP If all other requirements can be met, what type of oil should be used to achieve theoretically perfect engine lubrication? A. The thinnest oil that will stay in place and maintain a reasonable film strength. B. An oil that combines a low viscosity index and a high neutralization number. C. An oil that combines high viscosity and low demulsibility. 390. K01 AMP In addition to lubricating (reducing friction between moving parts), engine oil performs what functions? 1. Cools. 2. Seals. 3. Cleans. 4. Prevents corrosion. 5. Cushions impact (shock) loads. A. 1, 3, 4. B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. C. 1, 2, 3, 4. 391. K01 AMP Which of these characteristics is desirable in turbine engine oil? A. High volatility. B. High flash point. C. Low flash point. 392. K01 AMP The viscosity of a liquid is a measure of its A. resistance to flow. B. weight, or density. C. rate of change of internal friction with change in temperature. 393. K01 AMP What type of oil system is usually found on turbine engines? A. Dry sump, dip, and splash. B. Dry sump, pressure, and spray. C. Wet sump, spray, and splash. 394. K01 AMP Which of the following factors helps determine the proper grade of oil to use in a particular engine? A. Positive introduction of oil to the bearings. B. Operating speeds of bearings. C. Adequate lubrication in various attitudes of flight. 395. K01 AMP Specific gravity is a comparison of the weight of a substance to the weight of an equal volume of A. mercury at a specific temperature. B. oil at a specific temperature. C. distilled water at a specific temperature. 396. K01 AMP What advantage do mineral base lubricants have over vegetable oil base lubricants when used in aircraft engines? A. Cooling ability. B. Chemical stability. C. Friction resistance. 397. K01 AMP The recommended aircraft engine lubricants are A. mineral or synthetic based. B. vegetable, mineral, or synthetic based. C. animal, mineral, or synthetic based. 398. K01 AMP High tooth pressures and high rubbing velocities, such as occur with spur type gears, require the use of A. straight mineral oil. B. an EP lubricant. C. metallic ash detergent oil. 399. K01 AMP Manufacturers normally require turbine engine oil servicing within a short time after engine shutdown primarily to A. help dilute and neutralize any contaminants that may already be present in the engine's oil system. B. prevent overservicing. C. provide a better indication of any oil leaks in the system. 400. K01 AMP What type of oil do most engine manufacturers recommend for new reciprocating engine break in? A. Ashless dispersant oil. B. Straight mineral oil. C. Semi synthetic oil. 401. K02 AMP The type of oil pumps most commonly used on turbine engines are classified as A. positive displacement. B. constant speed. C. variable displacement. 402. K02 AMP As a general rule, the mixture setting on a reciprocating engine operating at or near takeoff power that provides the best cooling is A. FULL RICH. B. LEAN. C. FULL LEAN. 403. K02 AMP The engine oil temperature regulator is usually located between which of the following on a dry sump reciprocating engine? A. The engine oil supply pump and the internal lubrication system. B. The oil storage tank and the engine oil supply pump. C. The scavenger pump outlet and the oil storage tank. 404. K02 AMP What will happen to the return oil if the oil line between the scavenger pump and the oil cooler separates? A. Oil will accumulate in the engine. B. The return oil will be pumped overboard. C. The scavenger return line check valve will close and force the oil to bypass directly to the intake side of the pressure pump. 405. K02 AMP At cruise RPM, some oil will flow through the relief valve of a gear type engine oil pump. This is normal as the relief valve is set at a pressure which is A. lower than the pressure pump capabilities. B. lower than the pump inlet pressure. C. higher than pressure pump capabilities. 406. K02 AMP (1) Fuel may be used to cool oil in gas turbine engines. (2) Ram air may be used to cool oil in gas turbine engines. Regarding the above statements, A. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. B. only No. 1 is true. C. only No. 2 is true. 407. K02 AMP In a reciprocating engine oil system, the temperature bulb senses oil temperature A. while the oil is in the hottest area of the engine. B. immediately before the oil enters the oil cooler. C. at a point after the oil has passed through the oil cooler. 408. K02 AMP The oil dampened main bearing utilized in some turbine engines is used to A. provide an oil film between the outer race and the bearing housing in order to reduce vibration tendencies in the rotor system, and to allow for slight misalignment. B. provide lubrication of bearings from the beginning of starting rotation until normal oil pressure is established. C. dampen surges in oil pressure to the bearings. 409. K02 AMP What is the purpose of the last chance oil filters? A. To prevent damage to the oil spray nozzle. B. To assure a clean supply of oil to the lubrication system. C. To filter the oil immediately before it enters the main bearings. 410. K02 AMP In a jet engine which uses a fuel oil heat exchanger, the oil temperature is controlled by a thermostatic valve that regulates the flow of A. fuel through the heat exchanger. B. oil through the heat exchanger. C. both fuel and oil through the heat exchanger. 411. K02 AMP What prevents pressure within the lubricating oil tank from rising above or falling below ambient pressure (reciprocating engine)? A. Oil tank vent. B. Oil pressure relief valve. C. Oil tank check valve. 412. K02 AMP In an axial flow turbine engine, compressor bleed air is sometimes used to aid in cooling the A. inlet guide vanes. B. fuel. C. turbine, vanes, blades, and bearings. 413. K02 AMP Oil picks up the most heat from which of the following turbine engine components? A. Turbine bearing. B. Compressor bearing. C. Rotor coupling. 414. K02 AMP Which of the following is a function of the fuel oil heat exchanger on a turbojet engine? A. Emulsifies the oil. B. Aerates the fuel. C. Increases fuel temperature. 415. K02 AMP After making a welded repair to a pressurized type turbine engine oil tank, the tank should be pressure checked to A. 5 PSI. B. not less than 5 PSI plus the average operating pressure of the tank. C. not less than 5 PSI plus the maximum operating pressure of the tank. 416. K02 AMP Why are fixed orifice nozzles used in the lubrication system of gas turbine engines? A. To protect the oil seals by preventing excessive pressure from entering the bearing cavities. B. To keep back pressure on the oil pump, thus preventing an air lock. C. To provide a relatively constant oil flow to the main bearings at all engine speeds. 417. K02 AMP Possible failure related ferrous metal particles in turbine engine oil cause an (electrical) indicating type magnetic chip detector to indicate their presence by A. generating a small electric current that is caused by the particles being in contact with the dissimilar metal of the detector tip. B. disturbing the magnetic lines of flux around the detector tip. C. bridging the gap between the detector center (positive) electrode and the ground electrode. 418. K02 AMP What would be the probable result if the oil system pressure relief valve should stick in the open position on a turbine engine? A. Insufficient lubrication. B. Decreased oil temperature. C. Increased oil pressure. 419. K02 AMP What is the primary purpose of the oil to fuel heat exchanger? A. De aerate the oil. B. Cool the fuel. C. Cool the oil. 420. K02 AMP Low oil pressure can be detrimental to the internal engine components. However, high oil pressure A. should be limited to the engine manufacturer's recommendations. B. has a negligible effect. C. will not occur because of pressure losses around the bearings. 421. K02 AMP What is the primary purpose of the oil breather pressurization system that is used on turbine engines? A. Prevents foaming of the oil. B. Allows aeration of the oil for better lubrication because of the air/oil mist. C. Provides a proper oil spray pattern from the main bearing oil jets. 422. K02 AMP The purpose of directing bleed air to the outer turbine case on some engines is to A. provide optimum turbine blade tip clearance by controlling thermal expansion. B. provide up to 100 percent kinetic energy extraction from the flowing gases. C. allow operation in a thermal environment 600 to 800 °F above the temperature limits of turbine blade and vane alloys. 423. K03 AMP In order to relieve excessive pump pressure in an engine's internal oil system, most engines are equipped with a A. vent. B. relief valve. C. bypass valve. 424. K03 AMP What is the source of most of the heat that is absorbed by the lubricating oil in a reciprocating engine? A. Pistons and cylinder walls. B. Exhaust valves. C. Crankshaft main bearings. 425. K03 AMP How are the teeth of the gears in the accessory section of an engine normally lubricated? A. By surrounding the load bearing portions with baffles or housings within which oil pressure can be maintained. B. By submerging the load bearing portions in oil. C. By splashed or sprayed oil. 426. K03 AMP What is the purpose of the check valve generally used in a dry sump lubrication system? A. To prevent the oil from the pressure pump from entering the scavenger system. B. To prevent the scavenger pump from losing its prime. C. To prevent the oil from the supply tank from seeping into the crankcase during inoperative periods. 427. K03 AMP From the following, identify the factor that has the least effect on the oil consumption of a specific engine. A. Lubricant characteristics. B. Mechanical efficiency. C. Engine RPM. 428. K03 AMP How is the oil collected by the piston oil ring returned to the crankcase? A. Down vertical slots cut in the piston wall between the piston oil ring groove and the piston skirt. B. Through holes drilled in the piston oil ring groove. C. Through holes drilled in the piston pin recess. 429. K03 AMP As an aid to cold weather starting, the oil dilution system thins the oil with A. kerosene. B. gasoline. C. alcohol. 430. K03 AMP The basic oil pressure relief valve setting for a newly overh